I just finished Book of Lost Tales, Part 1, and I was amazed at Tolkien's artful use of English archaicisms, some of which he was using deftly even at an early age!
I tried to do some research on the Internet regarding a few of his usages, but I couldn't find much.
Specifically, I was interested in what looks like an archaic reflexive on p. 142, "Now Melko gets him gone to Mandos . . .". It is similar to Shakepeare's "Get thee gone" in Midsummer Night's Dream" except here it is in 3rd person. I just haven't been able to find any early modern English forums or guides that explain this usage. Most forums only deal with pronouns and meanings of obsolete words, not with syntax.
Also, it is notable how many of the tales are in present tense, also seen in the example above. This is a feature in ancient Greek I have seen, and I never whether it was common in English as well.
I tried to do some research on the Internet regarding a few of his usages, but I couldn't find much.
Specifically, I was interested in what looks like an archaic reflexive on p. 142, "Now Melko gets him gone to Mandos . . .". It is similar to Shakepeare's "Get thee gone" in Midsummer Night's Dream" except here it is in 3rd person. I just haven't been able to find any early modern English forums or guides that explain this usage. Most forums only deal with pronouns and meanings of obsolete words, not with syntax.
Also, it is notable how many of the tales are in present tense, also seen in the example above. This is a feature in ancient Greek I have seen, and I never whether it was common in English as well.


