The One Ring - invisibility - Tom B

Why and how the Ring confers invisibility is without doubt the more problematic of the unanswerable riddles to be found in Professor Tolkien’s masterworks. But I believe that if we all put our hypothetical noses to the imaginary grindstone, that we can produce a valid albeit unprovable theory as to the power of the One Ring.

First I would like to open with a quote that I am sure you will all recognize.

Now the Valar took to themselves shape and hue; and because they were drawn into the World by love of the Children of Ilúvatar, for whom they hoped, they took shape after that manner which they had beheld in the Vision of Ilúvatar, save only in majesty and splendour. Moreover their shape comes of their knowledge of the visible World, rather than of the World itself; and they need it not, save only as we use raiment, and yet we may be naked and suffer no loss of our being. Therefore the Valar may walk, if they will, unclad, and then even the Eldar cannot clearly perceive them, though they be present.

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We know that if they wish the Valar can move invisible to all eyes: we also know that the Valar still exist while unseen. It is my theory that the Valar and Maiar only appear “visible” to the Children of Ilúvatar by choice rather than by nature; therefore the Ainur, either Vala or Maia, must exist primarily on a plane of existence other than that occupied by the denizens of Middle Earth.
Since Sauron was of the Maia, he would therefore have the power to shift his being between these differing planes of existence. As we all know, Sauron endowed the One Ring with the greater portion of his native being. Sauron split himself into two separate and distinct parts. The thinking, malicious mind remained as what we know as Sauron, while the unthinking natural part of Sauron’s being is now the Ring. Or to put it another way, the Ring is not only a creation of Sauron, but rather the Ring is a piece of Sauron and thereby maintains the native abilities of a Maia.

Now that we have a basic understanding of what the Ring is, we can better investigate how it works. It is my belief that when worn, the Ring confers upon the wearer the native powers of a Maia but not the knowledge or skill to control these abilities. I feel certain that if one could wear the ring long enough, and he or she was of sufficient will to resist the innate evil of Sauron, he or she would eventually come to be able to remain visible by choice as well as master the incredible power that is maintained within the Ring.
This explains why owners of the Ring perceive a “clouded” reality while wearing it. Elves, Men, Hobbits, Dwarves etc; are physical bodies and are tied to Middle Earth while the live. (Elves even after) They simply cannot exist on two separate planes simultaneously: therefore they become mired between the two, unable to perceive either clearly.


This leaves us with the question of good old Tom. I have always felt that Tom is to Middle Earth as a whole, as Ents are to trees. Ents are essentially sentient/autonomous tress; Tom therefore is essentially the physical embodiment of the spirit of Middle Earth. Naturally the Ring would have no effect on Tom because the power that it contains does not exist on his plane of existence. Saruman’s fire-pits and Ted Sandyman’s mills have more power to harm Tom than anything the Ring is capable of. As for the question of Tom being able to see Frodo even after Frodo dons the Ring is part of this same concept. The Ring has now power to effect Tom therefore, it cannot delude him either.









I realize that this theory is simple at best and still is in need of refinement, but I believe that it is supportable. I invite any and all of you to help me to more fully develop this concept, or conversely, to present any arguments against it.


Thank you for your time
RD

Originally posted by Ulairi

We know that Tom isn't Valar, as they weren't allowed to go to Middle-earth in those times, which is why the sent their minions.

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I don't think it was a matter of 'not being allowed to ME', rather there was no need for the Valar themselves to get involved in the affairs of Elves and Men. To the War of Wrath they sent Eonwe against Morgoth. It is dubious whether there were any Valar there - certainly none are mentioned. And against Sauron they sent 'lesser' (though still great) spirits of the same order.

P.S.: Great post, RD.

Fantastic idea there RD.
I'd just like to add that the primary purpose of Sauron creating the Ring of Power was to enhance his own powers. Otherwise it would seem completely useless for a Maia to store most of their power and energy into something. I believe that, by somehow manipulating the new artificial 'carrier' of his Maia-essense (the Ring), Sauron was able to enhance his own powers simply by wearing the Ring.

I also really liked Ulairi's idea that the Ring would have a sort of 'burgular alarm' or mechanism that would render anybody besides Sauron invisible to the Seen world, but far clearer to the Unseen (i.e. Sauron would perceive that person when they put on the Ring). Consequently the Ulairi D) or Ringwraiths were able to better perceive or sense Frodo when he wore the Ring or when Frodo contemplated using it (e.g. when the hobbits hid beside the road a Nazgûl almost spotted them, and on Amon Sûl).
At least that's what I gathered from the first part of your post above, Ulairi.

Hehe ithryn that has always bothered me aobut the War of Wrath.. The term "host of the Valar" is used many times, but it is not explicitly said that the Valar were there! But I have always assumed so, because the Angainor was brought to Melkor again; and I suppose I've always seen a Vala holding it or fastening it, but it isn't certain by any means.

And also concerning Ulairi's words quoted by ithrynluin, an argument which I have often maintained is that Tom Bombadil might have been either sent into Arda the moment it was ready, or that Tom was 'sculpted' as a part of Arda, and did not need to 'descend' into it as he was already of it. These I believe in, because Tom does say that he saw Melkor coming into Arda (and melkor was supposedly the first being to set foot into Arda).

Originally posted by Rangerdave
Since Sauron was of the Maia, he would therefore have the power to shift his being between these differing planes of existence. As we all know, Sauron endowed the One Ring with the greater portion of his native being. Sauron split himself into two separate and distinct parts. The thinking, malicious mind remained as what we know as Sauron, while the unthinking natural part of Sauron’s being is now the Ring. Or to put it another way, the Ring is not only a creation of Sauron, but rather the Ring is a piece of Sauron and thereby maintains the native abilities of a Maia.

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First of all thanks for all the kinds words, Lantarion, you pretty much nutted it out. Alright RD, what you have presented here is extremely interesting. You're moving into the territory that I was before I left, the sentience of the Ring, which is a fantastic debate, but I do not want to steer the course of the discussion to my own vantage points. But what the heck, I'm gonna do it anyway! You said the Ring was unthinking, although I have no real tangible proof in my defense at this current point in time, I can certainly say that the Ring has perception. It 'knows', even if if it is only on the most subliminal levels of cognizance. I don't believe that Sauron could 'choose' which parts of his being to endow the Ring with, but again that is a matter of debate. Wait, I'll get my book!!!

Letters of JRRT, Letter #131 to Milton Waldman
"But to achieve this he had been obliged to let a great part of his own inherent power (a frequent and very significant motive in myth and fairy-story) pass into the One Ring. While he wore it, his power on earth was actually enhanced. But even if he did not wear it, that power existed and was in 'rapport' with himself: he was not 'diminished'. Unless some other seized it and became possessed of it. If that happened, the new possessor could (if sufficiently strong and heroic by nature) challenge Sauron, become master of all that he had learned or done since the making of the One Ring, and so overthrow him and usurp his place....* Also, so great was the Ring's power of lust, that anyone who used it became mastered by it; it was beyond the strength of any will (evern his own) to injure it, cast it away, r neglect it."

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*Skipped text.

This is what really interests me here. His power was 'enhanced' by the power of the Ring, and although one could argue because the Ring was the master of the other 19, we are not really given a true explanation of what is exactly enhanced. Now, RD argued that the Ring and Sauron were one, and I agree as Tolkien says it himself, but this has been the proverbial thorn in my side ever since I started reading Tolkien. How can enhancement occur if the Ring and Sauron are merely parts of one being, the original Sauron??? I really don't believe it is possible unless the will was greater, which is what the quote also says. But wait, if the will is greater then the equation is unbalanced and the Ring must therefore have an inherent 'nature' of its own!!! ! Tolkien mentions this too many times, although it is only a hint and really sub textual, I believe that the Ring is a sentient being, as it is constantly referred to being a separate part of Sauron.

Another argument for my case is indeed that the new possessor of the Ring is indeed endowed with the knowledge of Sauron's doing since its creation. If the Ring is merely will itself, then how can one make a connection to the mind of Sauron unless the Ring is partially mind itself?? Hmmmm, interesting. Alright, time for another letter.

Letters of JRRT, Letter #246 to Mrs Eileen Elgar
"One can imagine the scene in which Gandalf, say, was placed in such a position. It would be a delicate balance. On one side the true allegiance of the Ring to Sauron; on the other superior strength because Sauron was not actually in possession,....If Gandalf proved the victor, the result would have been for Sauron the same as the destruction of the Ring; for him it would have been destroyed, taken from him forever. But the Ring and all its worksm would have endured. It would have been the master in the end."

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Hmmmm, interesting. Well, does Tolkien explain why the Ring endures??? No, of course he doesn't, and there's the thorn. If the Ring doesn't die with Sauron then there is only one possible explanation, there is a part of the Ring that is indeed cognizant, that it is indeed a partially sentient being. Now, I'm nt going to say that the Ring had an agenda of its own, that's absolute absurdity. However, we know that the Ring could become greater than its master, potentially. The Ring is Sauron, but perhaps not in the way we first imagined it. The quote says that the Ring's works would endure. Would dominate, would conquer. I don't believe there is anymore to explain. While Sauron exists the Ring has no mind except that of its master. But it endures even when he is gone, and that is Ring Sentience Theory.

Originally posted by Rangerdave
Now that we have a basic understanding of what the Ring is, we can better investigate how it works. It is my belief that when worn, the Ring confers upon the wearer the native powers of a Maia but not the knowledge or skill to control these abilities. I feel certain that if one could wear the ring long enough, and he or she was of sufficient will to resist the innate evil of Sauron, he or she would eventually come to be able to remain visible by choice as well as master the incredible power that is maintained within the Ring.
This explains why owners of the Ring perceive a “clouded” reality while wearing it. Elves, Men, Hobbits, Dwarves etc; are physical bodies and are tied to Middle Earth while the live. (Elves even after) They simply cannot exist on two separate planes simultaneously: therefore they become mired between the two, unable to perceive either clearly.

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Yeah, interesting, but I tend to disagree. Sorry RD. Here's why.

The Lord of the Rings: FOTR: In the House of Tom Bombadil
"'Hey there!' cried Tom, glancing towards him with a most seeing look in his shining eyes.. 'Hey! Come Frodo, there! Where be you a-going? Old Tom Bombadil's not as blind as that yet. Take off your golden ring!"

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Now, according to your theory RD you said no one can exist in two planes. I believe I can disprove this through contradiction. Let's say you are correct, and Frodo at that point is indeed 'mired' between the realms. Tom can still see him. Therefore he must be 'mired' if he is to exist physically as well. However, he 'chose' to remain physical, and cannot exist in two planes at once. Therefore Tom cannot be 'mired' if he has chosen to be physical, and your theory is incorrect. However, as the 'nature' of Bombadil is unknown, perhaps your theory still bears weight.

Originally posted by Rangerdave
This leaves us with the question of good old Tom. I have always felt that Tom is to Middle Earth as a whole, as Ents are to trees. Ents are essentially sentient/autonomous tress; Tom therefore is essentially the physical embodiment of the spirit of Middle Earth. Naturally the Ring would have no effect on Tom because the power that it contains does not exist on his plane of existence. Saruman’s fire-pits and Ted Sandyman’s mills have more power to harm Tom than anything the Ring is capable of. As for the question of Tom being able to see Frodo even after Frodo dons the Ring is part of this same concept. The Ring has now power to effect Tom therefore, it cannot delude him either.

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Perhaps he exists on a different plane, but we only know of two, so, for now, I believe my argument still stands.

I don't think Bombadill was a Maia. I think he was another creature designed and created by Illuvatar's mind and only He knows what he is.He may be one of those creatures that entered Arda along with the Valar. I think the race of Tom Bombadill is something that is never to be found out. I think the author says somewhere that he himself didn't know what was the race of Tom Bombadill.

Now in the matter of the ring I think that it did not affect Bombadill because he was not tempted or corrupted(or whatever) by it. If he had, I don't know if he would become invisible but his reactions would be verydifferent.
i short, I think it doesn't affect him because he doesn't care about it

Originally posted by Saermegil
I don't think Bombadill was a Maia. I think he was another creature designed and created by Illuvatar's mind and only He knows what he is.

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I agree.

The History of Middle-Earth X: Morgoth's Ring; Commentary to the Athrabeth Firnod ah Andreth
According to the Ainulindalë there were five stages in Creation. a. The creation of the Ainur. b. The communication by Eru of his Design to the Ainur. c. The Great Music, which was as it were a rehearsal, and remained in the stage of thought or imagination. d. The 'Vision' of Eru, which was again only a foreshowing of possibility, and was incomplete. e. The Achievement, which is still going on.
The Eldar held that Eru was and is free at all stages. This freedom was shown in the Music by His introduction, after the
arising of the discords of Melkor, of the two new themes, representing the coming of Elves and Men, which were not in His first communication. [color=sky blue]He may therefore in stage 5 introduce things directly, which were not in the Music and so are not achieved through the Valar.[/color] It remains, nonetheless, true in general to regard Ea as achieved through their mediation.
[color=sky blue]The additions of Eru, however, will not be 'alien'; they will be accommodated to the nature and character of Ea and of those that dwell in it; they may enhance the past and enrich its purpose and significance, but they will contain it and not
destroy it.[/color]

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This passage reinforces the opinion that Bombadil can't be categorized into any of the existing 'species'. I believe he was one of these 'additions' and was created by Eru himself, not by the Valar.

I'm still waiting on that passage I requested.

Old Tom is not a Maia:
Letters of J.R.R. Tolkien, # 19

Do you think Tom Bombadil, the spirit of the (vanishing) Oxford and Berkshire countryside, could be made into the hero of a story?

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I think that the most correct answer to who Tom Bombadil is, can be found in The Lord of the Rings:

He is.

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Hahaha! LOL Nice move Arvedui!

Hehehe, nice one. I wonder if anyone's going to argue against Ring sentience, Grond certainly got pretty annoyed with the idea when I first conceived it.

Originally posted by Inderjit S
Gil-Galad was not the son of Fingon, but of Orodreth son of Angrod.

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I see. That's the last time I'll believe anything I read in the Silmarillion.

I think Gil-Galad is entitled to be called a High Elf, as he is of that direct lineage. In my interpretation, High Elf (or Light Elf) applies to all of those who have dwelt for a time in the light of the Trees; the Vanyar, the Noldor, and the Teleri who answered the summons and completed the journey to Aman. It is that distinction that sets them apart both racially and culturally from the Grey and Dark Elves. Those of High Elven blood remain High Elves...though they may never have personally lived in Aman, they still retain that heritage.

They could have held him down.

why would Sauron bother fighting close combat with three guys he had no hope against. Perhaps he was indeed invisible, but still somehow percieveable, like the Nine could percieve the One's wearer when he was invisible. Someone might have even bumped into him. Then they could have pinned him down while Isildur sliced off his finger.