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Tom Shippey: dwarfs or ⛏️dwarves

Rivendell_librarian

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I'm reading chapter 3 of Shippey's Road to Middle Earth. I find I can't rush through this book and need to read round what he is saying. Now Tolkien preferred to use "dwarves" to dwarfs in his books though sometimes wrote "dwarfs" in his letters (e.g. in letter 131 to Milton Waldman). In appendix F to LOTR, Tolkien gives the reason as his desire to emphasise the ancient nature of this race. In fact he says he would have preferred "dwarrows" but realised it was too archaic.

Shippey makes the argument that -ves is used for more ancient words like loaves as opposed to more recent words like proofs in the first section of chapter 3. But what about roofs vs rooves, for instance? It may not be so clear cut an issue.

In an early (15 Oct 1937) letter to his publisher, Unwin, Tolkien called his use of "dwarves" as "a piece of private bad grammar" though later expressed "dudgeon" when the publishers Puffin "corrected" to "dwarfs" (30 Dec 1961).

In Appendix F Tolkien refers to the "sillier tales of these latter days" and in an early letter (13 May 1937) to Unwin expresses his "loathing" for the works of the Disney studios. So I wonder if a big reason for Tolkien to prefer "dwarves" is a certain 1938 Disney film.

I confess that I have used "dwarfs" rather than "dwarves" in this forum but will try to use them appropriately from now on.
 
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