Tar-Elenion
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- Jan 9, 2002
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Originally posted by Snaga
What then could the terms refer too? Uruk is clear:
This is a clue: it refers to the elite Mordor orcs ‘specially’ but not exclusively. So what of the use of Uruks in “The Battle of the Fords of Isen” to refer to some of Saruman’s forces? It appears to be used to very definitely distinguish the great orcs (who are would be “men-orcs”) of Saruman’s armies from his “orc-men”. From the taunts of the Isengarders at Helms Deep we can see that there is no distinction between these in the term “Uruk-Hai” between these two groups, but Uruks are still definitely orcish.
As my post above shows, the "rebel Uruk-hai" referred to in in the conversation between the soldier-orc and the tracker can only refer to Mordor Orcs.Thus Uruks can refer to some Isengarders, and the elite Mordor orcs. Whereas Uruk-Hai appears not refer to Mordor orcs, only soldiers of Isengard, both orc-men and men-orcs.
I think you misunderstand me. You are correct that in the Fords of Isen the Uruks are clearly distinguished from the 'half-orcs'. Thus the term Uruk-Hai is not used by the author, who wishes to distinguish between the two groups in an essay that is written from the standpoint of an omniscient observer. By contrast, Lord of the Rings is written differently, feigning to be written by Frodo from the observations of himself and others. Here, the distinction between orcs and half-orcs is imperfectly observed, and the term Uruk-Hai is used without distinction. Thus it is my belief that while 'Uruk' is only ever used of orcs, Uruk-Hai is a collective term for a more diverse group: Sarumans orc-bred armies.
Whilst "rebel Uruk-Hai" may refer to Mordor Orcs, why should we assume it refers to them correctly? Frodo and Sam are badly misidentified by the orcs, who quite clearly have no confidence in the instructions from their "Higher Ups". There are many possibilities: (1) that Shagrat mis-reported; (2) that Shagrat reported correctly, but was misinterpreted; (3) that Shagrat was correctly interpreted but the orders misidentified the quarry; (4) that the orcs did not understand their orders; and most likely of all (5) that the orcs are being sarcastic.Originally Posted By Tar-Elenion
As my post above shows, the "rebel Uruk-hai" referred to in in the conversation between the soldier-orc and the tracker can only refer to Mordor Orcs.
To disprove this evidence must be presented that Isengarders were present or believed to be present at Cirith Ungol. To date no one has been able to provide any such evidence ((and not just here, but in any number of forums and the newsgroups where I have argued this).
Originally posted by Snaga
I think you misunderstand me. You are correct that in the Fords of Isen the Uruks are clearly distinguished from the 'half-orcs'. Thus the term Uruk-Hai is not used by the author, who wishes to distinguish between the two groups in an essay that is written from the standpoint of an omniscient observer. By contrast, Lord of the Rings is written differently, feigning to be written by Frodo from the observations of himself and others. Here, the distinction between orcs and half-orcs is imperfectly observed, and the term Uruk-Hai is used without distinction. Thus it is my belief that while 'Uruk' is only ever used of orcs, Uruk-Hai is a collective term for a more diverse group: Sarumans orc-bred armies.
Whilst "rebel Uruk-Hai" may refer to Mordor Orcs, why should we assume it refers to them correctly? Frodo and Sam are badly misidentified by the orcs, who quite clearly have no confidence in the instructions from their "Higher Ups". There are many possibilities: (1) that Shagrat mis-reported; (2) that Shagrat reported correctly, but was misinterpreted; (3) that Shagrat was correctly interpreted but the orders misidentified the quarry; (4) that the orcs did not understand their orders; and most likely of all (5) that the orcs are being sarcastic.
No, it is not unclear. The Orcs were referring to the events at Cirith Ungol. To prove that the "rebel Uruk-hai" refers to Isengarders, evidence must be presented that Isengarders were involved or believed to be involved in the events at Cirith Ungol.Therefore, because the text leaves us unclear as to what these orcs meant in their use of the term "Uruk-Hai" we must look elsewhere.
What we can be much clearer about is that if the orcs had wanted to pluralise 'uruk' they would in fact have used 'uruks': the correct plural form when this term is used in the Common tongue; as attested to both by the author and Gandalf.
Wrong. It never clearly refers to Mordor orcs, except in your one confused example.
Wrong again. I do not have to prove any such thing. I have already said that the Orcs were referring to events at Cirith Ungol, but misidentifying their quarry, for whatever reason. I have presented numerous reasons how this might come about. In order for you to prove your presumption you would have to prove that (a) Shagrat correctly reported events at Cirith Ungol; and (b) he was correctly understood; and (c) that those that he reported to correctly passed on this information to the tracker and soldier orc; and (d) that these two both understood this information; and (e) that they were not being sarcastic in their conversation.The Orcs were referring to the events at Cirith Ungol. To prove that the "rebel Uruk-hai" refers to Isengarders, evidence must be presented that Isengarders were involved or believed to be involved in the events at Cirith Ungol.
I did that already. The Gandalf example, or the 'tarks' example.'Uruks' is an anglicization. To prove differently you need to show that 's' is a plural marker in Westron (or Black Speech).
Given the 'circumstantial' evidence surrounding the references, I don't think any direct statement need be made. If we were to put this to a vote, I'd be willing to bet that 90% or more of the forum would agree that the Uruk-hai of Isengard are orc/human hybrids. Any takers?
LOL!! And what hidden tome contains Shagrat's report, that you can so confidently state exactly what he said?
Oh excellent- we now get to dictate what the other side must prove in order to have a convincing argument!! Glad you came up with such an unbiased test for proof- you must be worried that you've now made your own case so much more difficult!Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
No, it is not unclear. The Orcs were referring to the events at Cirith Ungol. To prove that the "rebel Uruk-hai" refers to Isengarders, evidence must be presented that Isengarders were involved or believed to be involved in the events at Cirith Ungol.
'Uruks' could as well be an orcization, or anything else. Snaga doesn't need to prove anything. And please, before you Trotter out the UT index again, can we acknowledge that it is copyrighted by Christopher Tolkien, not JRR? Perhaps it comes from JRRT's notes, perhaps not- there is no way to tell.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
'Uruks' is an anglicization. To prove differently you need to show that 's' is a plural marker in Westron (or Black Speech).
As the index in UT says:
"Uruks Anglicized form of Uruk-hai of the Black Speech; a race of Orcs of great size and strength."
The example is not confused. The evidence from LotR has been directly quoted. To prove that the "rebel Uruk-hai" does not refer to Orc's in Sauron's service you need to provide evidence that other Orcs (Isengarders) were were involved in or belived to be involved in the events at Cirith Ungol.Originally posted by Snaga
Wrong. It never clearly refers to Mordor orcs, except in your one confused example.
At Helms Deep we have Gamling describing Saruman's forces as 'half orcs and goblin-men'; and later both Merry and Aragorn attest to their presence. And yet the narrator only ever uses the term 'Orc' in the entire chapter. But these Orcs, who must therefore include men-orcs and orc-men, repeatedly call themselves the Uruk-Hai. It clearly refers to all of them.
Wrong again. I do not have to prove any such thing. I have already said that the Orcs were referring to events at Cirith Ungol, but misidentifying their quarry, for whatever reason. I have presented numerous reasons how this might come about. In order for you to prove your presumption you would have to prove that (a) Shagrat correctly reported events at Cirith Ungol; and (b) he was correctly understood; and (c) that those that he reported to correctly passed on this information to the tracker and soldier orc; and (d) that these two both understood this information; and (e) that they were not being sarcastic in their conversation.
I did that already. The Gandalf example, or the 'tarks' example.
As CT said:As for CT's index in UT, I will stick to the author's own words.
Argumentum ad populum.Originally posted by aragil
LOL! I should know better by now, but ...
Given the 'circumstantial' evidence surrounding the references, I don't think any direct statement need be made. If we were to put this to a vote, I'd be willing to bet that 90% or more of the forum would agree that the Uruk-hai of Isengard are orc/human hybrids. Any takers?
What the soldier and tracker conversed about is entirely consistant with the information Shagrat would have had. I have quoted the relevant passages above.LOL!! And what hidden tome contains Shagrat's report, that you can so confidently state exactly what he said?[
Ad hominem attacks render your argument less than credible.Oh excellent- we now get to dictate what the other side must prove in order to have a convincing argument!! Glad you came up with such an unbiased test for proof- you must be worried that you've now made your own case so much more difficult!
Another strawman.
Populate the forum with all the strawmen you care to. I'm not sure what you think the point of posting here is, but you are not convincing anyone of your argument. If you think that you can prove that Gamling's reference does not refer to Uruk-hai, then let's start a poll. Otherwise you are stuck with Argumentum ad unum.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
Argumentum ad populum.
And a strawman to boot.
However, what has been said ad infinitum on this thread (and here it is yet again- for all the good it seemingly does) is that the orcs were clearly unsatisfied with their orders. There is clearly room for ambiguity here, whether you see it or not.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
What the soldier and tracker conversed about is entirely consistant with the information Shagrat would have had. I have quoted the relevant passages above.
I wasn't aware that I had made any. What I did do is point out that you are entirely stacking the deck in your favor: "To prove that the "rebel Uruk-hai" refers to Isengarders, evidence must be presented that Isengarders were involved or believed to be involved in the events at Cirith Ungol." And who, besides you, ordains that this and no other constitutes proof? Make up all the rules you want, but don't lecture me on credibility.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
Ad hominem attacks render your argument less than credible.
You have made this your main argument because, frankly, without it you don't have anything tying Uruk-hai to Mordor. However, the fact that there is so much ambiguity (whether you choose to admit it or not) makes the whole argument rather weak. I'm happy to allow that your interpretation is valid- I've even done some justice (IMO) to the "Uruks=anglicized Uruk-hai" argument in another thread. However, my reading of this passage will never be that it refers accurately to Gorbag's lot. This just takes away too much from the reading- the fun here is that the bad guys (From the Big Bosses to the Tracker and Soldier) are completely befuddled as to what is happening in the world around them. "Whose is the Kingly face in the Palantir?" "Why does the wind turn against them at Pelannor?" "What has nearly killed Shelob?" "What has decimated the entire Tower of Cirith Ungol- was it an Elf, a Dwarf, a Pack of Rebels, the whole lot of them acting in concert?" Mordor has no clue, and that is the joy of the passage!! Your pursuit of which report could have been made where and when by whom probably provides some scholarly satisfaction, but (IMO) it misses out on the true enjoyment of Tolkien's written word. So by all means, if you are not impressed with the coincidence of Ugluk's Uruk-hai attacking Sauron's troops to abduct M&P, and the Soldier's accusation that Uruk-hai have attacked Cirith Ungol to get at yet another prisoner, then keep asking for proof. I'll be here enjoying the work.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
As the key portion of this argument is contained in the phrase "rebel Uruk-hai" and I have provided evidence that it refers to the events at Cirith Ungol and using direct quotes from LotR have shown what knowledge Shagrat would have had and what would have been observed at Cirith Ungol, and that this is entirely consistant with the "rebel Uruk-hai" passage my argument is made.
On the otherside is the argument that "rebel Uruk-hai" refers to Isengarders. I have requested evidence that Isengarders were present or believed to be present at Cirith Ungol, just like the Elf-warrior and small sort of dwarf-man were present or believed to be present at Cirith Ungol. So far no such evidence has ever been provided here or in any other forum or newsgroup where I have discussed this.
Strawman indeed! The truth is that there is a grand total of one passage of what can be called true BS (the Ring inscription), and one passage of Orcish (the Moria Orc's insult to Ugluk) in the entire corpus. Again, it is very easy to make demands for proof when you know there will be none forthcoming. The 's' ending seems to be applied rather frequently to Black Speech words. Given the extreme paucity of actual grammar rules for BS, this is as close to evidence as anyone will ever get.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
Another strawman.
There is no attested plural marker 's' in the languages of Middle-earth. What CT says about the index re. explanations (and what he does not say) has been quoted.
Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
Ad hominem attacks render your argument less than credible
Aragil responded:
I wasn't aware that I had made any. What I did do is point out that you are entirely stacking the deck in your favor:...
aragil wrote:
Oh excellent- we now get to dictate what the other side must prove in order to have a convincing argument!! Glad you came up with such an unbiased test for proof- you must be worried that you've now made your own case so much more difficult!
It's admittedly sarcastic and smart-alecky (I prefer 'wry observation'), but it is not intended as (nor do I think it is) an attack.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
"you must be worried that you've now made your own case so much more difficult!"
This is an ad hominem.
Originally posted by aragil
Populate the forum with all the strawmen you care to. I'm not sure what you think the point of posting here is, but you are not convincing anyone of your argument. If you think that you can prove that Gamling's reference does not refer to Uruk-hai, then let's start a poll. Otherwise you are stuck with Argumentum ad unum.
However, what has been said ad infinitum on this thread (and here it is yet again- for all the good it seemingly does) is that the orcs were clearly unsatisfied with their orders. There is clearly room for ambiguity here, whether you see it or not.
It is the only way to prove the argument. It is as simple as that.What I did do is point out that you are entirely stacking the deck in your favor: "To prove that the "rebel Uruk-hai" refers to Isengarders, evidence must be presented that Isengarders were involved or believed to be involved in the events at Cirith Ungol." And who, besides you, ordains that this and no other constitutes proof? Make up all the rules you want, but don't lecture me on credibility.
Wrong. App.E, a letter and the index to UT.You have made this your main argument because, frankly, without it you don't have anything tying Uruk-hai to Mordor.
Strawman indeed!Correct. This:
"And please, before you Trotter out the UT index again, can we acknowledge that it is copyrighted by Christopher Tolkien, not JRR?"
is a strawman, no argument was being made about who holds the copyright. Indeed The Silmarillion, and HoME are all copyrighted by CT (et. al.).
The truth is that 's' is an english plural marker and is used as an Anglicization in any number of words throughout the corpus.The truth is that there is a grand total of one passage of what can be called true BS (the Ring inscription), and one passage of Orcish (the Moria Orc's insult to Ugluk) in the entire corpus. Again, it is very easy to make demands for proof when you know there will be none forthcoming. The 's' ending seems to be applied rather frequently to Black Speech words. Given the extreme paucity of actual grammar rules for BS, this is as close to evidence as anyone will ever get.
As for UT, the fact remains that we do not know if the definition came from CT or JRRT- we're all aware of the evidence. As Cian said some time ago, JRRT's original notes for the index are going to be published, so there is some hope for closure here. However, as I have pointed out before, the actual index for LotR seems to differentiate the terms 'uruks' an 'uruk-hai'. Hardly evidence in your favor.
CT took definitions and explanations from his father's index to put the UT index together.
As I have pointed out, the index to LotR differentiates the terms 'Elf' and 'Elven-folk'.
Originally posted by aragil
It's admittedly sarcastic and smart-alecky (I prefer 'wry observation'), but it is not intended as (nor do I think it is) an attack.
If you consider that an ad hominem, I must ask, do your internal organs ever just spontaneously burst through your gauze-thin skin?Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
"you must be worried that you've now made your own case so much more difficult!"
This is an ad hominem.
I have no idea how many I speak for. However, it appears to me that two noted members of this thread (jallan and ShagratU) would both side with you for Uruks=Uruk-hai, but would agree with me that Gamling was referring to the Uruk-hai with his statement. As far as I know, you're the only one who cares that there is no 'direct' statement, nor should we expect there to be. According to the "Uruk-hai=human/orc hybrids" theory, the Uruk-hai are a new race, so the non-orcish characters wouldn't know what to call them other than 'half-orcs', etc. The forces of darkness refer to them as 'Uruk-hai'. Who would be left to make a direct statement that "uruk-hai=half-orcs"? I would say this is your very own strawman. If you're curious as to whether or not I speak for everyone, then why don't we follow my suggestion and have a poll? I'm sure it would be informative.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
The argument was a strawman because it was not about whether the Isengarders were hybrids or not, it was about _direct_ references to them as Half-orcs etc. Gamling's statement is an implied reference, which people infer as referring to the Uruk-hai. Do you speak for everyone?
Snaga did not see an elf-wariior because none existed. It was a mistaken identity. If mistaken identities don't result in ambiguity, than what does?Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
No ambiguity in the orders given based on the events at Cirith Ungol. It was believed there was an Elf warrior on the loose (Snaga even saw it). Frodo is a sort of small dwarf-man. Some of Sauron's Orcs rebelled. All three of those fit with what the tracker and soldier were told to look for.
No Isengarders present, no evidence of Isengarders present.
Reason to send scouting parties out to look Sam, Frodo and any of Sauron's Uruk-hai that rebelled and may have escaped. No reason to send them out to look for Isengarders.
I'll assume you meant appendix F, which never says anything about "Mordor Uruk-hai". The letter refers to Germans, Japanese, and some English- still no reference to Mordor Uruk-hai. The index for UT 1) is not authoratative; and 2)mentions nothing of Mordor Uruk-hai.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
Wrong. App.E, a letter and the index to UT.
The truth is that 's' is also a plural marker in many real world languages. It could also be a plural marker in one of Tolkien's languages- there's simply no evidence for or against it.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
The truth is that 's' is an english plural marker and is used as an Anglicization in any number of words throughout the corpus.
I would think the point here is that we don't know which definitions come from CT and which from JRRT. As easy as it is for you to assume that 'Uruk-hai' is one of JRRT's, it is equally easy for me to assume otherwise. As there is yet no definitive word on which it is, I suggest you stop pushing your assumption around the thread and wait for Wayne Hammond's final word on the matter, like the rest of us.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
CT took definitions and explanations from his father's index to put the UT index together.
As I have pointed out, the index to LotR differentiates the terms 'Elf' and 'Elven-folk'.
It is not about you, it is about the method you employ in your argument. If you consider it to be derogatory, then I recommend you adopt a new style! If you're going to sit there and declare what needs to be proved, and do so in such a way that clearly favors your own argument, then you should be aware that some will see the humor in this. Sorry to offend, but it was most definitely NOT a derogatory comment towards you, but a bit of a chuckle at your style of arguing.Originally posted by Tar-Elenion
It is a direct and derogatory comment on me personally, not my argument, and presented as though it has some relevance to my argument. That is an ad hominem attack.
That was quite funny! Was it extremely funny? I don't know- let's ask T-E!Originally posted by Parrot
If you consider that an ad hominem, I must ask, do your internal organs ever just spontaneously burst through your gauze-thin skin?
Then why make the claim:Originally posted by aragil
I have no idea how many I speak for.
There is no direct reference to the Uruk-hai in LotR (or elsewhere in the corpus) as 'half-orcs'. I pointed that out in responce to Snaga's argument that:However, it appears to me that two noted members of this thread (jallan and ShagratU) would both side with you for Uruks=Uruk-hai, but would agree with me that Gamling was referring to the Uruk-hai with his statement. As far as I know, you're the only one who cares that there is no 'direct' statement, nor should we expect there to be. According to the "Uruk-hai=human/orc hybrids" theory, the Uruk-hai are a new race, so the non-orcish characters wouldn't know what to call them other than 'half-orcs', etc. The forces of darkness refer to them as 'Uruk-hai'. Who would be left to make a direct statement that "uruk-hai=half-orcs"?
I would say this is your very own strawman.
Snaga did not see an elf-wariior because none existed. It was a mistaken identity. If mistaken identities don't result in ambiguity, than what does?
They all back up my assertion in that they show that Uruk-hai are not exclusive to Isengard.I'll assume you meant appendix F, which never says anything about "Mordor Uruk-hai". The letter refers to Germans, Japanese, and some English- still no reference to Mordor Uruk-hai. The index for UT 1) is not authoratative; and 2)mentions nothing of Mordor Uruk-hai.
Certainly there is evidence against it. The index explanation in UT that Uruks is an anglicization, and that JRRT commonly uses anglicizations in the same manner.
Your assumption would be 'less easy', because CT does not state that any of the 'definitions' are his.I would think the point here is that we don't know which definitions come from CT and which from JRRT. As easy as it is for you to assume that 'Uruk-hai' is one of JRRT's, it is equally easy for me to assume otherwise. As there is yet no definitive word on which it is, I suggest you stop pushing your assumption around the thread and wait for Wayne Hammond's final word on the matter, like the rest of us.
Then you should have addressed the argument and not directed your 'comment' at me. You stated: "you must be worried that you've now made your own case so much more difficult!".It is not about you, it is about the method you employ in your argument. If you consider it to be derogatory, then I recommend you adopt a new style! If you're going to sit there and declare what needs to be proved, and do so in such a way that clearly favors your own argument, then you should be aware that some will see the humor in this. Sorry to offend, but it was most definitely NOT a derogatory comment towards you, but a bit of a chuckle at your style of arguing.
Interesting. You state that you were not making an ad hominem, you apologize for offending, you claim that your statement was not derogatory, and then when another poster makes an ad hominem attack you encourage it by declaring how funny it was.That was quite funny! Was it extremely funny? I don't know- let's ask T-E!
Tar-Elenion, you countered this very well. Can we now then say that 'Uruks' is an Anglicized form of the Black-speech 'Uruk-hai', referring to the same race of Orcs?
It is my opinion and observation that Tolkien uses the terms Uruk-hai and Uruk(s) interchangably throughout his texts. It is similar to the question of capitalization of names of races or people (e.g. hobbits and Hobbits), and as I see it Tolkien merely wanted to maintain a steady flow of English in certain passages where the term Uruk-hai might have been too alien a word to use properly, for example in describing a battle scene or chase, and that the use of the word would have ended the consistant continuity of the written language.Uruks Anglicized form of Uruk-hai of the Black Speech; a race of Orcs of great size and strength
I didnt realise that Gandalf spoke English. Or that the orcs did! It seems to me they were both speaking Westron. As were the Isengarders when they used "Uruk-Hai", or indeed the soldier and tracker!
The same page includes many references to Uruks, being unitalicized.From 'Unfinished Tales', The battles of the Fords of Isen
Behind them came two battalions of the fierce Uruks, heavily armed but trained to move at great speed for many miles. [...]
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