Thorondor_
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- Joined
- Apr 27, 2005
- Messages
- 1,119
In letter 155, Tolkien makes the following remark regarding magic and humans:
Are magical objects usable by humans? Or do they represent mere objects for them?Anyway, a difference in the use of 'magic' in this story is that it is not to be come by by 'lore' or spells; but it is an inherent power not possessed or attainable by Men as such. Aragorn's 'healing' might be regarded as 'magical', or at least a blend of magic with pharmacy and 'hypnotic' processes. But it is (in theory) reported by hobbits who have very little notions of philosophy and science; while Aragorn is not pure 'Man', but at long remove one of the 'children of Luthien'.

