I have been watching this argument ebb and flo for awhile and have been content to watch.... but JeffF, I must point out your error before others bash in. There was no elf blade recovered in Mordor. The blade recovered was Sam's blade of Westernesse made in Arnor. Your argument is still sound though because the mithril coat of armour, though forged by Dwarves, was unmistakably one made for an Elven princeling. And your argument would also be sound that a mithril coat of such value would belong to a high elf and not one of the Green Elves.Originally posted by JeffF.
...The main claim is that the reports from Cirith Ungol are unreliable citing the report of an 'elf-warrior' when the readers know there is not one. By a thin line of logic they conclude that Uruk-hai from Isengard is no greater an aberration. The problem is the report of the elf-warrior IS credible from a military intelligence sense. After a career studying enemy spot reports and tactical intelligence my view is the enemy would view them as very accurate. That is not to say it is true, the readers know it is not, but from the Dark Lord's view. There was an elf-blade captured and from the Enemy's view the most likely source of this weapon is logically an elf. More it is of the rare sort of sword used by the Noldor (the kind that light upo when evil is near) making it likely that this possible elf warrior is a High Elf and not Sindar or Silvan. The Enemy would learn from the Nazgul that took over Cirith Ungol that there was a rebellion of Uruk-hai attempting to steal the items captured from Frodo.
The Enemy would learn from the Nazgul that took over Cirith Ungol that there was a rebellion of Uruk-hai attempting to steal the items captured from Frodo.
On the comment "Uruk-hai of Isengard." if all Uruk-hai were from Isengard why say "of Isengard?'
Just thought I'd jump back in to say that all of you are using circular logic to attempt to prove something that can't be proven. Your statement, Greenwood, that the phrase "Uruk-hai of Isengard" is simply a more formal style of speech is as circular as anything anyone else has said. How would you presume to know the mind of JRRT when he wrote that?Originally posted by Greenwood
It is merely an older, more formal style of speech. To say that the phrase "Uruk-hai of Isengard" implies there are "Uruk-hai of Somewhere Else" is reaching. If you write "Julius Ceasar of Rome" or Cleopatra of Egypt does that imply that there are other Julius Ceasars or Cleopatras out there? Julius Ceasar of Athens? Cleopatra of Babylon? The phrasing is merely a somewhat archaic way saying where the speaker is from.
Originally posted by Greenwood
The final example (12) has also been the subject of considerable debate here. I have expanded the quotation given to show the full context of the usage. It seems clear to me that "uruk" is being referred back to orch in discussing the derivation of the word. The subject of the last sentence is the word snaga, not "Uruk-hai" and in no way does it imply that "Uruk-hai" and "uruk" are equivalent as some have argued. If that were the case than it would mean that "Uruk-hai" was a singular noun, which it clearly is not in all the uses in LOTR.
Originally posted by Greenwood
As for the argument that "Uruk-hai" is always a plural noun so we can therefore assume uruk is it singular form, there is nothing to support this.
Originally posted by Greenwood
Tolkien never tells us how to refer to one individual member of the "Uruk-hai", so we don't know what the singular form would be. The singular form might be "Uruk-hai", just as the singular form of Nazgul is Nazgul. (I will return to example 12 below.)
Originally posted by Greenwood
The use of the word "uruks" is more complex. The word "uruk" (no 's') is only used once (example 12) where it is lowercase and italicized. It is clear that Tolkien in this example is giving the etymology of the base word (uruk). There are two instances (examples 8 and 9) of the word "Uruks" (capitalized and with an 's') and in both cases it is clearly referring to large Mordor orcs and the capitalization makes the usage appear to be a proper name for a group. We are left with four instances (examples 10, 11, 13 and 14) of the use of the word "uruks" (lower case). In examples 10 and 13 the word is also italicized. I do not think it is an accident that Tolkien uses the lowercase in these instances.
Originally posted by Greenwood
In these cases Tolkien is using the word "uruks" as a general (generic) term for all large soldier orcs (this also explains example 12). These large soldier orcs are in the service of both Sauron (the "Uruks" proper) and Saruman (a new breed, the "Uruk-hai").
Originally posted by Greenwood
Both Tar-Elenion and ShagratU seem to have conceded that Saruman has a new breed of orc in his employ.
Originally posted by Greenwood
It seems to me that the above explanations of these words simply and clearly explain all their usages in LOTR without resorting to elaborate arguments about when characters are hearing translations and when they are not and various other convoluted explanations.
Originally posted by Greenwood
To sum up orc is the broadest general category (all Uruks and Uruk-hai are orcs); uruks (lowercase) is a more restricted category and refers to large soldier orcs (all Uruks and Uruk-hai are uruks); but Uruks and Uruk-hai (uppercase) are each sub-categories of uruks belonging to Sauron and Saruman, respectively.
Originally posted by Greenwood
As to the related, but seperate, discussion of the meaning of the suffix "-hai", I still suggest that it is in some way related to a tolerance of sunlight in creatures that might normally be expected to dislike the sun. Saruman's Uruk-hai boast of their disdain for the sun when most orcs do not like the sun. The Olog-hai are a form of trolls that tolerate the sun when normal trolls cannot tolerate the sun. We are left with the Oghor-hai from Unfinished Tales. We are told in UT that Oghor-hai is the orc's name for the Druedain. We are also told that another name for the Druedain is Pukel which means goblin (=orc), so we have the Druedain being considered somewhat goblin-like (orc-like) in appearance, but they can tolerate the sun because they are not true goblins, but are indeed men. Thus we can make a sun connection for all three uses of the suffix "-hai".
Originally posted by Greenwood
7) In The Return of the King, in the chapter The Land of Shadow, Sam and Frodo overhear two orcs talking and one says: ".... First they say it's a great Elf in bright armour, then it's a sort of small dwarf-man, then it must be a pack of rebel Uruk-hai; or maybe it's all the lot together."
Example 7 has been the subject of much debate here, so it is at best ambiguous, but Aragil and I argue that in the light of the eight earlier instances the weight of evidence is on example 7 also referring to Saruman's troops.
Both Tar-Elenion and ShagratU seem to have conceded that Saruman has a new breed of orc in his employ.
As to the related, but seperate, discussion of the meaning of the suffix "-hai", I still suggest that it is in some way related to a tolerance of sunlight in creatures that might normally be expected to dislike the sun. Saruman's Uruk-hai boast of their disdain for the sun when most orcs do not like the sun. The Olog-hai are a form of trolls that tolerate the sun when normal trolls cannot tolerate the sun. We are left with the Oghor-hai from Unfinished Tales. We are told in UT that Oghor-hai is the orc's name for the Druedain. We are also told that another name for the Druedain is Pukel which means goblin (=orc), so we have the Druedain being considered somewhat goblin-like (orc-like) in appearance, but they can tolerate the sun because they are not true goblins, but are indeed men. Thus we can make a sun connection for all three uses of the suffix "-hai".
Originally posted by aragil
I re-iterate that I see 'hai' being applied in the sense of a specific epithet.
Originally posted by aragil
The general grouping is 'uruks', and Saruman's Orcs are differentiated by adding 'hai'. Doubtless Greenwood and I see this in part due to our common background in Biology.
[snip]
But, as I've said before, Tolkien was not a Taxonomist in the strict sense, he was a Philologist.
Originally posted by aragil
However, the Mountain Gorillas are a slightly different breed, and their naming reflects that they are only found in a secluded region. They are named Gorilla gorilla beringei. Although in the same species as the more common lowland gorilla, the mountain gorilla has had beringei added to the name to indicate that it is a slightly different breed with different characteristics. In my mind, the 'hai' of Uruk-hai is analogous to the beringei in the above example. Hai modifies Uruk to inform us that the Uruk-hai are larger, more cunning, and more sun-tolerant than the Uruks of Mordor. Ugluk and comrades say as much:
Originally posted by aragil
Who are the 'we' in the above sentence? 'We' refers to the Uruk-hai.
Originally posted by aragil
Ugluk and company do not say that they are some of the Uruk-hai, or that they are they 'that branch of the Uruk-hai which comes from Isengard'. They use the term Uruk-hai to be all-inclusive.
Originally posted by aragil
If there were other varieties of Uruk-hai, then Grishnakh would be one of them. Yet he does not object to Ugluk using 'Uruk-hai' in the all-inclusive sense, nor does he mind that Ugluk says that 'the Uruk-hai' 'come from Isengard'.
Originally posted by aragil
The Uruk-hai are not bothered by the light of day.
Originally posted by aragil
We have no direct statement about the Uruks of Mordor, but I have posted evidence that the Orcs of Mordor are adversely affected by the sun. Grishnakh's Uruks fall behind the Uruk-hai and have their heads down until the sun goes down, when they begin to put on speed. The moment the clouds are blown away and the Rohirrim attack at the Pelannor the Orcs and Men of Mordor begin to route. While the Men regain their composure and later put up a fight, the Orcs are only further described as being routed into the river in the midst of hating the sun. Finally, there is the quote of Treebeard- stating that all Orcs other than Saruman's dislike the sun and speculating that the Isengarders' acquisition of sun tolerance might be due to crossing with humans.
Originally posted by aragil
If we all agree that Saruman's Orcs were more sun-tolerant than Sauron's, then it behooves us to look again at the above passages: 'We are the fighting Uruk-hai' by Ugluk and 'We are the Uruk-hai' by the Orcs at Helm's Deep. Neither of these passages make me think that the Isengarders are a select group of Uruk-hai, with characteristics different from other groups of Uruk-hai. Both of these passages seem to be defining Uruk-hai, in the one case as the Orcs of Saruman, and in the other as sun-tolerant Orcs. Unless there are Uruk-hai that don't fight, then both of these passages are devoid of what has been termed 'qualifiers'.
Originally posted by aragil
. Gorbag is speaking in a similar sense to Ugluk and co. He is intending to be inclusive about a breed of Orcs- who puts slips right? The Uruks. What he does not say is The Uruk-hai. The only way to make these two statements equivalent is to argue that the ring was translating into Westron for Sam's benefit, and Tolkien was translating from Westron into English for our benefit. Yet we know the English 'translation' for Uruks- it's 'Orcs', or as it's more properly applied, 'large Soldier Orcs'.
Originally posted by aragil
What the 'ring as translator' theory neglects is that Tolkien would have been a poor story-teller by employing such a trick. If he wants us to think of the Soldier-Orcs of Mordor and of Isengard as both having the name 'Uruk-hai', then this would be the place to do it, regardless of how fluent Sam is in Black Speech.
Originally posted by aragil
I think there is a reason that he only uses Uruk-hai to refer to Isengard Orcs. I think the reason is that the Orcs of Isengard are a different (possibly derivative) breed than the Uruks of Mordor, and that this different breed has a different name: Uruk-hai.
The problem is that nothing in the context suggests that it is a reference to Saruman¡¯s troops.
All the rumours that the soldier-orc mentions are highly consistent with the information that Shagrat had to report, and which he seems to have reported not only to Barad-dur, but to Orc positions close to Cirith Ungol
The argument is that Uruk-hai here sounds like a collective or plural term for uruks. When the passage is read in the context of Appendix F, it appears to indicate that ¡°Uruk-hai¡± was the racial name for the great soldier-orcs of Isengard and Mordor. If ¡°Uruk-hai¡± applied only to the Isengarders, one would expect a definition in this section on ¡°Orcs and the Black Speech.¡± The silence is deafening!
Olog-hai and Oghor-hai are also only ever used in a plural or collective sense.
There are three hefty objections to this argument. The first is that Tolkien is remarkably inconsistent in his use of capitalization
So what about Ugluk and his followers, who are explicitly described as both ¡°Uruk-hai¡± and ¡°Uruks¡±?
There is no indication that ¡°Pukel¡± or ¡°Oghor¡± mean ¡°Orc¡± in Tolkien¡¯s work. Unless you can prove that it does, your theory is baseless.
The point is some of us do not except CT's view. We think he got it wrong. I have looked fairly carefully through CT's index in UT. I cannot find another case of anything being defined as an Anglicization of another word. In fact, I can't even find another instance of a word included in the index that is not in the text of UT which is the case with Uruk-hai. The only time Uruk-hai appears in UT is in CT's index.
Originally posted by Greenwood
In your opinion.
Originally posted by Greenwood
The point is some of us do not except CT's view. We think he got it wrong. I have looked fairly carefully through CT's index in UT. I cannot find another case of anything being defined as an Anglicization of another word. In fact, I can't even find another instance of a word included in the index that is not in the text of UT which is the case with Uruk-hai. The only time Uruk-hai appears in UT is in CT's index.
Originally posted by Greenwood
Appendix F does not say that Uruk-hai was the name for the great soldier orcs of Isengard and Mordor, much as you would like it to say that. It says the word uruk was applied to these troops. What is deafening is not Tolkien's silence, but the fact that he wrote an entire chapter about Saruman's troops and called it "The Uruk-hai" and at every opportunity when referring to Saruman's troops Tolkien calls them Uruk-hai (examples 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6). Why doesn't Gandalf use the term Uruk-hai (example 8)? We have no problems about translation effects of the Ring here. Why doesn't Tolkien use the term Uruk-hai when he is clearly referring to Mordor orcs (examples 7, 8, 10, 11, 13)? I would say Tolkien's usage is what is deafening.
Originally posted by Greenwood
The Battles of the Fords of Isen is not in LOTR, but was an unpublished manuscript of Tolkien's. If the HoME has shown us anything it is Tolkien's continual rewriting and changing of drafts. If Tolkien had ever made an attempt to include this narrative in an edition of LOTR I can assure you that any editor worth the name would have said: "Hey, John Ronald, how come you use Uruks here but Uruk-hai everywhere else when you talk about Saruman's troops?"
Originally posted by Greenwood
As for your special note, I do not remember any mention of Ugluk's band in The Battle of the Fords of Isen. I cannot find him mentioned in the index. If you are referring to the band of orcs that disappear during the night of Theodred's fall, they cannot be Ugluk's group which waylaid the Fellowship at Parth Galen the next day.
Originally posted by aragil
Finally, regarding 'rebel Uruk-hai'. I agree with you, Mordor Orcs in Mordor is far more likely than Isengard Orcs in Mordor. Unfortunately, Mordor did not have Uruk-hai.
Originally posted by aragil
However, since I have seen no reference to Mordor Orcs as 'rebel Uruk-hai', we'll have to assume that Sauron's military intelligence was bad, and he therefore made a bad choice from bad intelligence. He did not know that there was a Mithril Coat until the 17th, the day after the 'rebel Uruk-hai' statement was made. He was therefore going off some other intelligence to determine 'great Elf'.
Originally posted by aragil
Perhaps his military look-up book also said: 'any time Orcs attack Mordor Orcs leading to Halfling escape, the enemy Orcs are Isengarders'. We need only look at the Ugluk episode (the only other instance of this happening), and then Sauron's logic was apparently sound.
So what in the context suggests that the reference is to the Isengarders? If one abandons preconceptions, and assumes only that "Uruk-hai" here refers to large soldier-orcs of some sort, what makes one think of the Isengarders here?
The essential point seems to be that non-Orcish characters don't use Black Speech. The narrator uses "Uruk-hai" once, from Pippin's point of view, after he has heard the term from Orcish mouths. Otherwise, only Orcs appear to use "Uruk-hai". Given that we don't know what Gorbag actually said (it may well have been "Uruk-hai"), we seem to have a general rule that the narrator (writing in "Westron") and non-Orcish characters use the "Anglicized" term.
Reluctance to use a pure Black Speech term fits very well with reactions to the Black Speech in Rivendell.
Here you are confusing real words and their meanings with Tolkien's invented mythology. "Pucel", which is related to Shakespeare's "Puck", means "goblin" or "demon" in Old English, not in Tolkien's mythology. By comparison, "orc" means "Hell" or "demon-" in Old English, but not in Tolkien's mythology.
In Tolkien's writings, "Pukel" does not mean "Orc". Therefore your point is invalid.
Originally posted by Greenwood You both continually point to Christopher Tolkien's index in UT and treat it as if it was equivalent to JRRT himself. It is not. It is copyrighted by CT himself as are his Introduction and Commentary in UT. All he says is that he used his father's notes for some definitions, he does not tell us which. The Anglicization definition first appears in print in Foster's guide to Middle Earth that appeared before UT. You have no proof that CT (who admits to finding Foster's book useful) did not just use Foster's definition, perhaps thinking it was such a trivial thing why not? All your arguments are based on assumptions you cannot prove. You assume the Anglicization definition comes from JRRT himself, but you have no proof. You assume in all your arguments about usage in LOTR that the Anglicization definition is true and then use the results of that assumption to prove the assumption itself.
Originally posted by Greenwood
You both continually point to Christopher Tolkien's index in UT and treat it as if it was equivalent to JRRT himself. It is not. It is copyrighted by CT himself as are his Introduction and Commentary in UT. All he says is that he used his father's notes for some definitions, he does not tell us which. The Anglicization definition first appears in print in Foster's guide to Middle Earth that appeared before UT. You have no prove that CT (who admits to finding Foster's book useful) did not just use Foster's definition, perhaps thinking it was such a trivial thing why not?
Originally posted by Greenwood
One thinks of Isengarders because they are the only ones in the books who are referred to as Uruk-hai.
Originally posted by Greenwood
Your argument does not hold up. It is the narrator (Tolkien) who chooses the title "The Uruk-hai" for the chapter in TTT (example 4) and it is the narrator who uses Uruk-hai in example 6. The sentence does not read "Pippin thought 'I haven't known times this dark since my captivity with the Uruk-hai'
Originally posted by Greenwood
We also know from Appendix F that uruk is from Black Speech, so why would Uruks be allowed to be spoken but not Uruk-hai? If your response is that Uruks is an Anglicization and not pure Black Speech than you are falling back on your usual style of argument of assuming your Anglicization theory is correct in order to prove it is correct.
Originally posted by Greenwood
If "-hai" is how nouns are turned into plurals in Black Speech why does Snaga when talking to Shagrat in ROTK say "one of the filthy tarks"? Why not "tark-hai"? Sam is not wearing the Ring when he overhears this exchange so your "Ring as imperfect translator" theory doesn't work here.
Originally posted by Greenwood
The only thing that really is relevant here is that Tolkien never tells us what he meant when he used the suffix "-hai" so we are all just theorizing in the dark.
You have no proof that CT plagiarized from Foster. You have no proof that CT would consider it trvial. You have no proof that 'hai' in any way relates to 'sunlight resistance' which is based on your own convoluted reasoning. We do have proof that CT had access to and used his fathers notes, and specifically used definitions for some of the words in that index.
The point is that Christopher Tolkien is the best-placed person to know what "Uruk-hai" actually means. When he makes a definitive statement (as he does in UT), there's likely a very good reason for it. We know that JRRT used "Uruk-hai" in letters to his son; it's more than likely that he also used it in conversation. In short, Christopher Tolkien is the living person most likely to know exactly how the term was used. Given that there is no evidence that he is wrong in this case, I am inclined to believe him.
So your argument is entirely circular. Given that it's possible that there are other Uruk-hai than the Isengarders, I would suggest that it is better to consider whether the two Orcs are likely to be referring to Isengarders or not before reaching a conclusion as to what the term means.
I'm still interested to hear how you think a monosyllable can convey "sun resistant when sun resistance is not usally expected"!
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