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Would Poor Old Gollum have recovered if Frodo had done his job?

A few things here:
1. They are not 'renewed'. They are simply removed to a place where they can heal emotionally in an area (a land) not completely and irreversibly corrupted by Melkor. (Until Eru acts in the end, the 'song is sung aright' and everything is renewed,)
2. I think you might be overlooking the issues of 'morals' and 'motivation' in Gollums case, and in the hobbits'. This is the huge difference.

Gollum NEVER worked on behalf of anyone but himself. Gollum "failed" continually - especially morally. Oh yes, he argued with himself from time to time.. he had his "spaces of opportunity to repent" - but like Saruman at Orthanc, and like Melkor at his opportunity, and Sauron at his - Gollum did not 'repent'.

No, to the end, he simply wanted the ring for himself.

Frodo and Bilbo and Sam were honored, and received a 'purgatory' and life for a time in peace away from the corrupted 'evil that remains'
Why Bilbo, we say? What did he do?
Well, it wasn't just his 'keeping of the ring' for a few years. It was his willingness to sacrifice himself for the Free Peoples as voiced at the Council.

There is a world of difference between the corrupt Gollum, on whom the ring so quickly acted turning him into a murder of Deagol, and Bilbo, Frodo, and Sam.

Yes, Gollum hid the ring for many years. But the Ring at last acted on its own behalf 'as soon as there was opportunity.'
Why was there opportunity? Sauron had 'taken shape again' and was exerting what power he had. Something not happening for a very long time - in fact, those same number of years.

Recall in The Hobbit Gandalf leaves the party to go 'deal with Sauron' away south in Mirkwood. He is driven out, but only to flee to Mordor, which he has been preparing.

The Ring's decision to move on is completely consistent with Sauron's taking shape and exerting power again. The two are 'in synch.'

There's no reason to attribute any great morals or reasons for Gollum to receive the same kind of consideration as the hobbits.
Other than that he WAS given his opportunities to repent - but failed.
He was not 'pushed beyond his point of endurance' by the power of the Ring as Frodo was - whose failure was not a 'moral' one.
Gollum's failure was driven by a 'moral corruption' from the beginning.
This is such an enjoyable interchange!

If there is no renewal (and I could probably find a better word, but hopefully this will do) then why not just stay in the Shire? Surely you wouldn't say that the Shire (or many other parts of Middle-earth) have been 'irreversibly corrupted'? Isn't it a place where people can lead perfectly happy lives? So why make the journey if there isn't something 'extra' to be had?

I think Gollum always gets a terrible press and I've never understood why. If I hadn't fixed on old Tracker Orc, then I'd definitely have had poor old Gollum as my avatar, as I think he's probably the most interesting character in the entire book.

I think saying that he 'simply wanted the Ring for himself' does him a great disservice; he has been utterly consumed by the horrible thing and it's absolute need that is driving him. I simply don't think he is corrupt inasmuch as he has been corrupted, which is very different. The fascinating thing about him, for me at least, is that he shows such endurance and courage in the face of this horror.

I mean he could harm the hobbits while they are sleeping but he doesn't - the old Smeagol is still there after centuries of being hollowed out by this malevolent thing, which to me makes him a very moral creature in his own (definitely unique!) way.

And let's flip things over. The hobbits (and the other members of the Fellowship) get all the credit in the world for what they do, but how high a bar is this? Wouldn't anyone expect people to do good instead of bad? Isn't this what we would expect of ourselves? Obviously this doesn't always happen, but I'd say that there's no great moral value in doing what almost anyone would think of as basically 'normal' behaviour.
 
If Frodo got to the Fire and simply laid the Ring on the ground, would that suffice? Of course not. The whole point of the Council is to decide what to do with the Ring - once the wrong answers have been dealt with (give it to Bombadil, send it over Sea etc) the correct (and only) decision is made - it has to be destroyed. This is the entire purpose of the Quest.
This is a 'faith' thing. They cannot see the road. They do not know the entire plan. But they know it to be the only solution. They are making their decision based on hope, and faith, that things will unfold well. Yes, they may "hope" Frodo is able to throw the ring in the fire - but that is not specifically stated. Elrond speaks from 'that which he can see' and he cannot see it all.

Keep in mind Tolkien said his work was 'intentionally a Catholic and Religious work'. Unless we grasp that, and apply it to what's happening, we CANNOT understand Tolkien's methods and meanings as he 'labored over every word.'

Once Frodo (to his great credit) agrees to take the Ring, he is agreeing to try to destroy it; this is obvious. So obvious that it doesn't need to be repeated. That charge he has accepted, it hasn't been laid on him. The other three charges that Elrond lays on Frodo are, crucially, extra charges laid subsequent to the Council which has agreed to the Ring's (attempted) destruction. They pertain to Frodo's actions whilst he is attempting the first and, indeed, far most important charge of the Ring's destruction.

This is, of course, a reasonable assumption. But all involved also know no one ultimately can resist the power of the Ring. They operate in 'hope' and 'faith' somehow it will be done. Both Elrond and Gandalf's words display this.


Ultimately, Frodo fails utterly, but this is entirely understandable and, indeed, logical. This thing is simply too powerful for Frodo (as it would be for anyone else), so ther's no real problem here.
And I submit they all knew this was a possibility.
But they all 'trusted' somehow Providence would provide for the Rings destruction on behalf of the Free Peoples in the end.
Did they at times doubt? Yes.

Note Gandalf's critical comment "The Ring now has passed beyond my heop, or the help of any of the Company that set out from Rivendell."
He does not say "Frodo has taken the Ring beyond my help." His syntax puts the Ring as the subject of the action. The Ring was at work in the whole set of circumstances. (Of course, 'or the help of any of the Company that set ouf from Rivendell' was a mistake on Gandalf's part. One of many. He was discounting Sam Gamgee and his value.)

Tolkien, struggling over every word to 'include moral and religious elements intentionally, but not overtly' would not be so careless with his syntax to position this in this way without purpose.

This kind of thing occurs throughout his works, and can especially be seen in places in The Hobbit as well.

Now I don't think Eru has any place in LoTR so Grace and Mercy don't apply to how I look at the story.
And this is why our interpretations diverge so much.

As Tolkien said his work WAS a fundamentally Catholic and Religious work, and intentionally so, and that moral and religious elements MUST be conained in all myth and fantasy - just not overtly so - I do not feel I can can see what he intended at all, without seeking out the panoply of morality and religion he infused throughout.

Please understand - I'm not trying to 'get you to agree with me' here - I fully understand as people interpret his work outside a 'moral and religious context' they must come to different conclusions about most things. (This is also why we differ on why Bombadil has a larger value to the story.)

I just have no ability to do other than see how he, a master wordsmith, "incorporated them into his work - but not overtly. Not in the 'normal way of the world' or however exactly he said that point.

Letter 211: "Since I deliberately written a tale, which is built on or out of certain 'religious' ideas, but is not an allegory of them (or anything else) and does not mention them overtly, still less preach them, I will not now depart from that mode..." is another place he mentions his deliberate inclusion of religous ideas.

What religion is there not having a 'godhead' of some kind? (Even The Religion of Opinion has a god. It is 'self.')

He does not ever 'say' anything about it directly. He simply demonstrates its existence through his words.

Just like he never says "Sam is steadfast and true". He simply demonstrates Sam is steadfast and true, through how he uses his words to show what Sam does.
Sam's 'steadfastness' and 'faithfulness to his master' are never explicitly stated, but rather demonstrated - and they are certain of the moral elements' Tolkien deliberately included. Yet being a more normal element, is much easier to see, than many others.

Lobelia Sackville-baggins is a demonstration of significant self-centeredness, yet also of repentance through circumstances, with a complete turn of character and devotion to helping others. More of his incorporated 'moral and religious principles.' In her case, repentance came about by circumstances and sudden realizations, rather than an actual 'call to repent' as was provided to Melkor, Sauron, and Saruman.

(And note in Saruman's case, Gandalf says 'But listen, Saruman, for the last time! Will you not come down?" There is a tremendous 'religious principle' in view here Tolkien delivers to the observant reader. To others, Gandalf is 'just talking.'

And of course, Gandalf's use of the term "You cannot pass" with the Balrog in Moria is a massive 'religious element', rather than PJ's abberant "You shall not pass," demonstrating a 'clear miss' of Tolkien's point.

SO...
As you and I begin from a different foundation altogether, there is no surprise our conclusions about what's going on end at a different place either.

We're simply walking the same roadways (Tolkien's work) viewing them through a very different pair of glasses.

I do feel my glasses match Tolkien's own statements more closely, though they are as yet still imperfect and incomplete. But I cannot discount things like Providence, Faith, offers of Repentance accepted or rejected, and other religious elements he's incorporated into his work.

(The list of them for my book currently stands at 35 repetitive moral and religious elements, but it is incomplete.)

Ah, but I don't regard the Letters in anything like the same light as the actual Text. There doesn't seem to be any definitive argument either way in the actual books, unless I've missed something?
I don't either. They are an entirely different light.
They just contain some of his explanation of what he's doing with his works. What his intentions and objectives were. As such, they have great weight on how we should APPROACH his work and try to interpret it from his perspective, to understand what he was doing - what he was trying to get across.

My book will demonstrate using his own words from the published texts how he incorporated his principles, through many examples.

At the end of the day, I believe you and i can 'agree to disagree' on very many things given the foundations from which we view Tolkien's work, and the magnifying glasses we use to extract information from them.

And that's OK
 
why not just stay in the Shire? Surely you wouldn't say that the Shire (or many other parts of Middle-earth) have been 'irreversibly corrupted'
Unfortunately, I have to say it is. Melkor 'corrupted all Arda' which acccounts for part of 'the evil that remains' Gandalf speaks to.
And it's why the three ring-bearers need to depart Middle-earth to find the peace and separation from the evil still working in them.

Morgoth's effort was to distort and bend all Arda to be 'his creation,' or so he thought, determined to be its God and master.
Arda was his 'ring' as the One Ring was Sauron's.

He poured so much of his power into remaking Arda into his image, and controlling the creatures therein, he weakened himself.. just as Sauron weakened himself putting the greater of his power into the Ring.

Thus the Shire, still existent in Arda, suffers from the 'corruption of the world' as does every other part of it.

Can we grasp this just from the 'literal canon' of Hobbit and LoTR? No, I don't think so. It also takes work in the Silmarillion.
And it does help to see Tolkien's perspective of what he was intending by it all, in some of his Letters.

But here's the thing: he also intended his readers to 'be able to read and feel like his work was "real history."

Thus, how it is received all fits within his intent.

So... at the end of the day, there is simply "no right or wrong." His work simply "is," and each of us brings our own glasses to the work through which we choose to view it.
 
I think Gollum always gets a terrible press and I've never understood why.
We will discuss this at length at some point. I do pity him. However, in my view he is a very different case from any other posseseor of the ring. Yes, it consumed him. It would consume anyone, with the potential exception of Bombadil, which we will also discuss.
 
This is a 'faith' thing. They cannot see the road. They do not know the entire plan. But they know it to be the only solution. They are making their decision based on hope, and faith, that things will unfold well. Yes, they may "hope" Frodo is able to throw the ring in the fire - but that is not specifically stated. Elrond speaks from 'that which he can see' and he cannot see it all.

Keep in mind Tolkien said his work was 'intentionally a Catholic and Religious work'. Unless we grasp that, and apply it to what's happening, we CANNOT understand Tolkien's methods and meanings as he 'labored over every word.'



This is, of course, a reasonable assumption. But all involved also know no one ultimately can resist the power of the Ring. They operate in 'hope' and 'faith' somehow it will be done. Both Elrond and Gandalf's words display this.



And I submit they all knew this was a possibility.
But they all 'trusted' somehow Providence would provide for the Rings destruction on behalf of the Free Peoples in the end.
Did they at times doubt? Yes.

Note Gandalf's critical comment "The Ring now has passed beyond my heop, or the help of any of the Company that set out from Rivendell."
He does not say "Frodo has taken the Ring beyond my help." His syntax puts the Ring as the subject of the action. The Ring was at work in the whole set of circumstances. (Of course, 'or the help of any of the Company that set ouf from Rivendell' was a mistake on Gandalf's part. One of many. He was discounting Sam Gamgee and his value.)

Tolkien, struggling over every word to 'include moral and religious elements intentionally, but not overtly' would not be so careless with his syntax to position this in this way without purpose.

This kind of thing occurs throughout his works, and can especially be seen in places in The Hobbit as well.


And this is why our interpretations diverge so much.

As Tolkien said his work WAS a fundamentally Catholic and Religious work, and intentionally so, and that moral and religious elements MUST be conained in all myth and fantasy - just not overtly so - I do not feel I can can see what he intended at all, without seeking out the panoply of morality and religion he infused throughout.

Please understand - I'm not trying to 'get you to agree with me' here - I fully understand as people interpret his work outside a 'moral and religious context' they must come to different conclusions about most things. (This is also why we differ on why Bombadil has a larger value to the story.)

I just have no ability to do other than see how he, a master wordsmith, "incorporated them into his work - but not overtly. Not in the 'normal way of the world' or however exactly he said that point.

Letter 211: "Since I deliberately written a tale, which is built on or out of certain 'religious' ideas, but is not an allegory of them (or anything else) and does not mention them overtly, still less preach them, I will not now depart from that mode..." is another place he mentions his deliberate inclusion of religous ideas.

What religion is there not having a 'godhead' of some kind? (Even The Religion of Opinion has a god. It is 'self.')

He does not ever 'say' anything about it directly. He simply demonstrates its existence through his words.

Just like he never says "Sam is steadfast and true". He simply demonstrates Sam is steadfast and true, through how he uses his words to show what Sam does.
Sam's 'steadfastness' and 'faithfulness to his master' are never explicitly stated, but rather demonstrated - and they are certain of the moral elements' Tolkien deliberately included. Yet being a more normal element, is much easier to see, than many others.

Lobelia Sackville-baggins is a demonstration of significant self-centeredness, yet also of repentance through circumstances, with a complete turn of character and devotion to helping others. More of his incorporated 'moral and religious principles.' In her case, repentance came about by circumstances and sudden realizations, rather than an actual 'call to repent' as was provided to Melkor, Sauron, and Saruman.

(And note in Saruman's case, Gandalf says 'But listen, Saruman, for the last time! Will you not come down?" There is a tremendous 'religious principle' in view here Tolkien delivers to the observant reader. To others, Gandalf is 'just talking.'

And of course, Gandalf's use of the term "You cannot pass" with the Balrog in Moria is a massive 'religious element', rather than PJ's abberant "You shall not pass," demonstrating a 'clear miss' of Tolkien's point.

SO...
As you and I begin from a different foundation altogether, there is no surprise our conclusions about what's going on end at a different place either.

We're simply walking the same roadways (Tolkien's work) viewing them through a very different pair of glasses.

I do feel my glasses match Tolkien's own statements more closely, though they are as yet still imperfect and incomplete. But I cannot discount things like Providence, Faith, offers of Repentance accepted or rejected, and other religious elements he's incorporated into his work.

(The list of them for my book currently stands at 35 repetitive moral and religious elements, but it is incomplete.)


I don't either. They are an entirely different light.
They just contain some of his explanation of what he's doing with his works. What his intentions and objectives were. As such, they have great weight on how we should APPROACH his work and try to interpret it from his perspective, to understand what he was doing - what he was trying to get across.

My book will demonstrate using his own words from the published texts how he incorporated his principles, through many examples.

At the end of the day, I believe you and i can 'agree to disagree' on very many things given the foundations from which we view Tolkien's work, and the magnifying glasses we use to extract information from them.

And that's OK
It won't come as any surprise that I don't believe it's a 'faith' thing at all, just a 'hope' thing (hope itself being a purely non-religious, everyday aspect); they hope things will turn out for the best, as we all do.

I basically approach the work as Tolkien himself says, as a really long tale which will excite and amuse. I don't approach it from any religious aspect at all. I realise that Tolkien was a committed Catholic (I'm currently reading 'The Inklings' which illustrates just how important his faith was to him), and I would just ask this: why didn't he take the opportunity to promote the book as a Religious, Catholic work in the Foreword instead of leaving it to a few private Letters?

Another book I'm nearly finished is the Shippey 'Author of the Century' which has brought home to me the Philological base for Tolkien's works; maybe this aspect is as important (maybe more important) than the Religious?

And this might just be one of the many respectful disagreements we can have over Tolkien's works; as you say, we are approaching things from very different bases so this is only to be expected.

And yes, it's all very much ok.

Unfortunately, I have to say it is. Melkor 'corrupted all Arda' which acccounts for part of 'the evil that remains' Gandalf speaks to.
And it's why the three ring-bearers need to depart Middle-earth to find the peace and separation from the evil still working in them.

Morgoth's effort was to distort and bend all Arda to be 'his creation,' or so he thought, determined to be its God and master.
Arda was his 'ring' as the One Ring was Sauron's.

He poured so much of his power into remaking Arda into his image, and controlling the creatures therein, he weakened himself.. just as Sauron weakened himself putting the greater of his power into the Ring.

Thus the Shire, still existent in Arda, suffers from the 'corruption of the world' as does every other part of it.

Can we grasp this just from the 'literal canon' of Hobbit and LoTR? No, I don't think so. It also takes work in the Silmarillion.
And it does help to see Tolkien's perspective of what he was intending by it all, in some of his Letters.

But here's the thing: he also intended his readers to 'be able to read and feel like his work was "real history."

Thus, how it is received all fits within his intent.

So... at the end of the day, there is simply "no right or wrong." His work simply "is," and each of us brings our own glasses to the work through which we choose to view it.
So the 'corruption of the world' as a kind of biblical 'fallen world' thing? I mean, I can see this as a philosophical entity, but as an everyday existence I'd see the Shire as a pretty nice place to live (if you were a hobbit and therefore had low expectations; nowhere near as exciting as Mordor, obviously).

And again, if you stick to the canon (as I'm increasingly heading towards) then the Sil and Letters aren't applicable - as you say the 'real history' is the thing, and the 'real history' is what Tolkien published as TH and LoTR.

Though there is a nagging sense of what I may actually be missing by excluding material written (but not published) by Tolkien.

We will discuss this at length at some point. I do pity him. However, in my view he is a very different case from any other posseseor of the ring. Yes, it consumed him. It would consume anyone, with the potential exception of Bombadil, which we will also discuss.
Looking forward to any discussion of poor old Gollum. Bombadil, maybe not so much...
 
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Aha @1stvermont - both letters 191 and 246 speak to Frodo's 'failure'.
But not in relation to his charge. The point of reference seems to be in his ultimate ability to 'resist evil.' at its strongest point.

Letter 246 is particularly instructive.
And Tolkien also makes clear his failure was not a 'moral failure'. The Ring took him past a "finite creature's ability to resist."
A Moral Failure would have constituted an entirely different matter.
As it is, Tolkien also says he will pass away. "No mortal could, or can, abide forever on earth, or within time."
So when he went (west), he "went both to a purgatory, and to a reward."

We understand Purgatory to be: "a state of temporary suffering or purification after death, where souls are cleansed of impurities and prepared for heaven."

Frodo's (and Bilbo's) 'purgatory' was a time of purification from the stain of the darkness - a "period of reflection and peace" explained as Tolkien puts it here:

View attachment 37078

So Frodo's (and Bilbo's) "purgatory" was a very merciful thing for them to experience before their passing.

Thanks again for bringing it up... it closes the loop for me, clarifies one point, and does not setup a conflict as my first (and errant) conception of the 'purgatory' he faced took me to.

There are many kinds of 'purgatory' in the Elements of Religion Tolkien wrapped into his work. (Of course, this is not clearly explained in the "Canon" but in his letters - so we must deduce it from other things to be unfolded within the context of physical, endurable, vs. moral failure, and consequences thereof, how they are redressed, etc. and so on.)

Wonderful stuff, thank you...!!!!
Well done!
 
Well done!
Thanks.
I am still pondering one point though.
From Tolkien's letter 241 as noted above, "No mortal could, or can, abide forever on earth, or within time."

The question: Clearly when they go West they pass beyond earth. But do they also pass 'beyond time' ? I'll need to be rigorous on confirming or denying the conclusion on this.

If they pass beyond both, it is very likely they have been granted an 'eternal existence' as with the Elves in some way... or similar.
If however "West" is still subject to the confines of Time, then they will eventually die.

A tangled web... for the uneducated. Fortunately, ignornce does not need to be a lasting thing..!
 
'd see the Shire as a pretty nice place to live (if you were a hobbit and therefore had low expectations; nowhere near as exciting as Mordor, obviously).
I kind of see Bombadil's situaton as speaking to this.

Although he is absolute master within his sphere of influence, and he is 'master of earth..." &c however it's put... nonetheless, Old Man Willow, the Wights, and other evils still exist where he is master.

The Shire was invaded by Orcs at one time in history, and 'evil folk' are seen passing through. So it is not without its evils.
For me, I see plenty of evidence the Shire is not so secure or absent evil as we'd like to believe... AND, the evil done to the very core and structure of the earth itself is far deeper.

And we must remember Strider and the remaining Rangers rigorously protected their borders from the evil that remained (in physical form).

Throughout Middle-earth there are places like Gondor and Rohan where it would 'seem' evil does not hold swway. yet it does. The Shire is no exception. The reason it's as i tis, is due to the stated 'resilience of the hobbits' and that they are pretty much 'out of mind, uninvolved with the events of the wider world.'

Thus they live their carefree life.
Oh no, Evil is very much existent all in and around them.


So the 'corruption of the world' as a kind of biblical 'fallen world' thing?
Yes, biblical but also other religions not necessarily holding to the biblical teaching.
Certainly consistent with Tolkien's statement it's predominantly a "Catholic/Christian' work.

The concept it will be remade when the song is sung aright is also from those sources.
Both 'Religious Elements' intentionally incorporated into his work... but not 'overtly.'
 
Bombadil, maybe not so much...
OK. I'll just post my essay someplace here when I'm done writing it. You can read it or not if/as you may feel moved (or otherwise motivated) to do so.

It will be awhile. I'm still fitting in rereading Tolkien's words and writing on Bombadil, and some extraneous stuff written by others, to see if I find anything compelling to refine or change my views.

But it will come.

Bombadil and his juxtaposition, Ungoliant, are very much on my mind. (I've wanted to finish the essay on Ungoliant for some time now.)
 
Thanks.
I am still pondering one point though.
From Tolkien's letter 241 as noted above, "No mortal could, or can, abide forever on earth, or within time."

The question: Clearly when they go West they pass beyond earth. But do they also pass 'beyond time' ? I'll need to be rigorous on confirming or denying the conclusion on this.

If they pass beyond both, it is very likely they have been granted an 'eternal existence' as with the Elves in some way... or similar.
If however "West" is still subject to the confines of Time, then they will eventually die.

A tangled web... for the uneducated. Fortunately, ignornce does not need to be a lasting thing..!
I think I've always believed that if you go to the Undying Lands, you become immortal. I mean, the clue is in the name isn't it? I can't see the point of the hobbits (especially Bilbo) making the journey if they aren't going to be fundamentally changed for 'the good'. Bilbo would basically have died peacefully in rivendell otherwise wouldn't he?

I kind of see Bombadil's situaton as speaking to this.

Although he is absolute master within his sphere of influence, and he is 'master of earth..." &c however it's put... nonetheless, Old Man Willow, the Wights, and other evils still exist where he is master.

The Shire was invaded by Orcs at one time in history, and 'evil folk' are seen passing through. So it is not without its evils.
For me, I see plenty of evidence the Shire is not so secure or absent evil as we'd like to believe... AND, the evil done to the very core and structure of the earth itself is far deeper.

And we must remember Strider and the remaining Rangers rigorously protected their borders from the evil that remained (in physical form).

Throughout Middle-earth there are places like Gondor and Rohan where it would 'seem' evil does not hold swway. yet it does. The Shire is no exception. The reason it's as i tis, is due to the stated 'resilience of the hobbits' and that they are pretty much 'out of mind, uninvolved with the events of the wider world.'

Thus they live their carefree life.
Oh no, Evil is very much existent all in and around them.



Yes, biblical but also other religions not necessarily holding to the biblical teaching.
Certainly consistent with Tolkien's statement it's predominantly a "Catholic/Christian' work.

The concept it will be remade when the song is sung aright is also from those sources.
Both 'Religious Elements' intentionally incorporated into his work... but not 'overtly.'
Oh, there is plenty of evil in Middle-earth, the Shire included. There are even hobbits who you wouldn't particularly care for; this, to me, is different from believing that the place is 'corrupted'. There will have been evil people travelling (and even living in) the Shire, but there are evil people living everywhere - this is just a commonplace, it's part of life itself. The good evens out the bad, as in most places throughout history (real or imagined).

I really don't read LoTR with any religious aspect and have never believed that you need to - as Tolkien himself said, he wanted to tell a really long story which would excite and amuse, and there's no doubt he succeeded beyond his wildest expectations.

OK. I'll just post my essay someplace here when I'm done writing it. You can read it or not if/as you may feel moved (or otherwise motivated) to do so.

It will be awhile. I'm still fitting in rereading Tolkien's words and writing on Bombadil, and some extraneous stuff written by others, to see if I find anything compelling to refine or change my views.

But it will come.

Bombadil and his juxtaposition, Ungoliant, are very much on my mind. (I've wanted to finish the essay on Ungoliant for some time now.)
Oh I'm simply more interested in the mighty Gollum than anyone else, especially Bombadil who I've never understood properly.

As I've re-read the Bombadil chapters recently I've become even more irritated by him, mainly because of what I think of as Tolkien having a two-way bet with the character - he seems to be this 'master' who doesn't actually do much of anything whilst at the same time he can involve himself in Middle-earth when he wants to: he seems to know all about the Shire, knows Maggot for instance.

So why, for instance, doesn't he help the Shire in the Long Winter as Gandalf does?

Even more importantly, why doesn't he aid his friend Maggot when the Shire is overrun by Saruman's thugs?

He must surely have known what was happening, but didn't lift a finger, which I find rather bizarre, if not downright cruel.

And I'm totally intrigued as to how Bombadil and Ungoliant fit together!
 
I think I've always believed that if you go to the Undying Lands, you become immortal. I mean, the clue is in the name isn't it?
The Undying Lands are called this because they are inhabited by those who are bound to live in Arda forever: the Elves, Valar and Maiar.

From the Akallabêth (in The Silmarillion), where Manwë sends messengers to the Dúnedain, telling them why they cannot dwell in Valinor and gain immortality:
And were you so to voyage that escaping all deceits and snares you came indeed to Aman, the Blessed Realm, little would it profit you. For it is not the land of Manwë that makes its people deathless, but the Deathless that dwell therein have hallowed the land; and there you would but wither and grow weary the sooner, as moths in a light too strong and steadfast.
Later on they say: 'Nor can the Valar take away the gifts of Ilúvatar'. This references death being the 'Gift of Men', as they are the only ones who are able to leave the world entirely after death (hobbits are also counted as Men). Everyone else is bound to Arda until the end of the world. If I recall correctly, even Dwarves stay in Mandos, in an area separate from the Elves.
 
The Undying Lands are called this because they are inhabited by those who are bound to live in Arda forever: the Elves, Valar and Maiar.

From the Akallabêth (in The Silmarillion), where Manwë sends messengers to the Dúnedain, telling them why they cannot dwell in Valinor and gain immortality:

Later on they say: 'Nor can the Valar take away the gifts of Ilúvatar'. This references death being the 'Gift of Men', as they are the only ones who are able to leave the world entirely after death (hobbits are also counted as Men). Everyone else is bound to Arda until the end of the world. If I recall correctly, even Dwarves stay in Mandos, in an area separate from the Elves.
But would it make a difference in that the hobbits (and Gimli, perhaps) were given the invitation as a kind of gift? They don't ever try to go there as intruders, so to speak.

I mean, Frodo and Sam still have a decent time left to them, but Bilbo is at the end of a very long life - unless he is going to be given some kind of physical renewal, what is the point of him making the journey? He could pass away peacefully in Rivendell surrounded by friends, which would surely be better than travelling only to quickly die in a strange land?
 
I mean, Frodo and Sam still have a decent time left to them, but Bilbo is at the end of a very long life - unless he is going to be given some kind of physical renewal, what is the point of him making the journey? He could pass away peacefully in Rivendell surrounded by friends, which would surely be better than travelling only to quickly die in a strange land?
Doubtless they would receive some kind of physical and mental renewal and healing. But it wouldn't come in the form of new youth or immortality.
 
Doubtless they would receive some kind of physical and mental renewal and healing. But it wouldn't come in the form of new youth or immortality.
Oh, I'd be happy with that; I've never thought that they would do a Benjamin Button and become young again, more like Bilbo getting rid of the aches and pains that a 131 year old hobbit would have, and maybe living a decent amount of time longer with good health.
 
I think I've always believed that if you go to the Undying Lands, you become immortal. I mean, the clue is in the name isn't it? I can't see the point of the hobbits (especially Bilbo) making the journey if they aren't going to be fundamentally changed for 'the good'. Bilbo would basically have died peacefully in rivendell otherwise wouldn't he?
The Silmarillion, Eru's messenger speaking to the Numenorians about their desire to visit Valinor:
...It is not the land of Manwe that makes it's people deathless, but the Deathless that dwell therein have hallowed the land; and there you would but wither and grow weary the sooner, as moths in a light to strong and steadfast.
Still, I would like to agree with you that perhaps some special grace was granted to the hobbits and that they lived for quite a long time in Valinor and were healed of both physical and mental weariness. I also like to imagine Frodo and Sam meeting again in Valinor.
Nevertheless, death is a part of life, just as sadness is a part of joy. And now that I'm thinking about it, is death really such a bad thing?
 
The Silmarillion, Eru's messenger speaking to the Numenorians about their desire to visit Valinor:

Still, I would like to agree with you that perhaps some special grace was granted to the hobbits and that they lived for quite a long time in Valinor and were healed of both physical and mental weariness. I also like to imagine Frodo and Sam meeting again in Valinor.
Nevertheless, death is a part of life, just as sadness is a part of joy. And now that I'm thinking about it, is death really such a bad thing?
I think I've always pretty much assumed that all the hobbits would meet up again - including Bilbo. It's about sixty years between Frodo and Bilbo leaving, and then Sam following them; just a blink of an eye over there surely?
 
Hmm.... Sam left when he was about 102, if I'm not mistaken... and Frodo is around 12 years older than Sam. That would make Frodo 114 when Sam made his way over to the Undying Lands. Bilbo survived well past 111, with the help of the Ring, so perhaps Frodo could have survived past that while in the Undying Lands? Not sure about Bilbo, though...
 
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Hmm.... Sam left when he was about 102, if I'm not mistaken... and Frodo is around 12 years older than Sam. That would make Frodo 114 when Sam made his way over to the Undying Lands. Bilbo survived well past 111, with the help of the Ring, so perhaps Frodo could have survived past that while in the Undying Lands? Not sure about Bilbo, though...
With them all being Ringbearers I've always supposed that there would be special dispensation for them; it's presented as a kind of gift that they can go, so it wouldn't be much of a gift if Bilbo didn't get to stay around for a decent amount of time and at least meet up with the others for a while.
 
Tolkien suggests that, despite Frodo's compassion, Gollum was too scarred for complete redemption, his tragic fate having already been sealed
Indeed in some respects we see similarities between Saruman and Gollum.
Yet huge differences as well.

Saruman, never having touched the ring, but been corrupted by the very thought of it for years, and in the end, by Sauron directly through the Palantir, was given his "last chance" says Gandalf - his final opportunity - to 'remept and come down.' He chooses unwisely, though he 'seems to hesitate for a moment.'

Gollum was much more under the sway of the direct impact of Ring itself via possession - a much greater impact impact than Saruman's purely mental obsession brought. (Even with Sauron's remaining lesser power wielded upon him through the Palantir.)

Yet Gollum did not hesitate "for a moment." He had quite a little battle. Again speaking to the 'resilience of hobbits' of whom Gollum is kin.

But from elsewhere, we know Gollum was a bit corrupted before the ring came along for him... and the ring used that.
We also know from elsewhere the purpose for wearing the ring comes to bear, and the length of time as well.

Gollum used the ring for "power to kill" among the Orcs... and in thievery and such among his own kin before he was excommunicated.

Bilbo onlly used the ring to "deceive" (i.e., to hide so as not to be discommodated, etc.)
Frodo, pretty mcuh the same.
Sam the same as well.

There is a vast difference beteween the backgrounds of Gollum and the other hobbits - as well as the uses of the ring.
We do not, I thinik, give these differences the "space they deserve" in evaluating Gollum's ultimate potential for 'healing'. In essence, a bit corrupt before - more completely corrupt after.

It's also said, as we recall, "A ring of power enhances one's own internal strength." To what extent did the One Ring actally ENHANCE not only Gollum's innate corruptness, but the 3 hobbits' own natural goodness and ability to resist its ultimate working to corrupt them in the end?

Even Gandalf knew "he would use it out of pity for the people" at the beginning, but ultimately would end up corrupted. And he had the problem of knowing he wouild use it "for its power" - something none of the hobbits ever did.

An ocean of interplay, is the Ring - a many-faceted trinket with which we can toy.
 
If Frodo had destroyed the Ring from the start, Gollum might have regained some peace, but he probably would never have healed completely. His obsession with the Ring had profoundly transformed him, creating a struggle between his "Sméagol" part (his original self) and "Gollum" (the corrupt side). Even without the Ring, his past of suffering and loneliness would have prevented him from becoming completely innocent again. Tolkien suggests that, despite Frodo's compassion, Gollum was too scarred for complete redemption, his tragic fate having already been sealed
I like to think that the Ring owed poor old Gollum about 80 or so years, which he would have lived if he hadn't been ambushed by it, so I would still say that he could have ended up at peace with himself at least. He doesn't need redemption or even innocence, just a nice cool lake to splash around in and a decent supply of fish. Never really asked for much more than that did he?
 

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