sorry I gotta get in on this...
Greenwood says:
"I have also said that since these two works are finished works, published, and revised by Tolkien himself, the books published after his death are secondary to them and cannot be used to dispute material that is clear in The Hobbit and LOTR."
So let me understand things. We take LoTR and the Hobbit to be more definitive than the SIL or HoME etc...
When Gandalf says pop-gun, Balin says Bravo, Biblo writes about staying in inns all the way out to very near Rivendell, Bilbo talks about all the queer aspects of dragons (including how they boast, their sense of smell, their way of keeping one eye open, their knowledge of the fair price of everything but not really a knowledge of quality, how Smaug is stupid enough to ignore the hole in his armor) I am supposed to take these statements as more in line with what Tolkien really felt like vs. reading UT the Palantiri, reading HoME regarding Erendis, reading the conversation between Glaurung and Turin, etc? I mean, putting the Hobbit ahead of some of the writing in the Sil, and in UT especially concerning what is definitively from Tolkien in most/all cases?
Am I missing something? At least in published scientific work (which I admit may not be applicable at all) the most recent description is the one used, whether it is a letter, a published paper, a published accepted paper, etc.
I personally feel that calling only the Hobbit and LoTR definitive may be correct, but does not necessarily describe best practice in finding out the whole story on a particular subject. Saying that ME had guns because Gandalf describes them in the Hobbit is definitive?
And don't state its Bilbo's artistic license that causes the strangeness in the book, if Balin knows some French, well does he or not?
I don't think it is as clearly cut as you say Greenwood.
respectfully! Eonwe
Greenwood says:
"I have also said that since these two works are finished works, published, and revised by Tolkien himself, the books published after his death are secondary to them and cannot be used to dispute material that is clear in The Hobbit and LOTR."
So let me understand things. We take LoTR and the Hobbit to be more definitive than the SIL or HoME etc...
When Gandalf says pop-gun, Balin says Bravo, Biblo writes about staying in inns all the way out to very near Rivendell, Bilbo talks about all the queer aspects of dragons (including how they boast, their sense of smell, their way of keeping one eye open, their knowledge of the fair price of everything but not really a knowledge of quality, how Smaug is stupid enough to ignore the hole in his armor) I am supposed to take these statements as more in line with what Tolkien really felt like vs. reading UT the Palantiri, reading HoME regarding Erendis, reading the conversation between Glaurung and Turin, etc? I mean, putting the Hobbit ahead of some of the writing in the Sil, and in UT especially concerning what is definitively from Tolkien in most/all cases?
Am I missing something? At least in published scientific work (which I admit may not be applicable at all) the most recent description is the one used, whether it is a letter, a published paper, a published accepted paper, etc.
I personally feel that calling only the Hobbit and LoTR definitive may be correct, but does not necessarily describe best practice in finding out the whole story on a particular subject. Saying that ME had guns because Gandalf describes them in the Hobbit is definitive?
And don't state its Bilbo's artistic license that causes the strangeness in the book, if Balin knows some French, well does he or not?
I don't think it is as clearly cut as you say Greenwood.
respectfully! Eonwe
