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👁️Sauron and Melkor...

Do me a favour, you - learned heads, and try to help me out about a question that was bothering me every time the armies of the Valar came "on stage"...

Where did the Valar take their warriors for their armies?
 
Where did the Valar take their warriors for their armies?

Vanyar, Teleri and some Noldor who remained in Aman, most possible led by Maiar officers.


Isildur, Elendil and Gil-Galad dealt with Sauron(the strongest Maia, close to a Vala in power) while he had the One Ring on the finger, and not only defeated him, but "killed" him as well, at the cost of Elendil and Gil-Galad's death. Two Children of Iluvatar for one Maia is a pretty score


But as the Ainulindalë tells, "the Valar took to themselves shape and hue" when they entered Eä at the beginning of Time. They became self-incarnate. "The making of a lambe [language] is the chief character of an Incarnate," Pengolodh the sage of Gondolin observed. "The Valar, having arrayed them in this manner, would inevitably during their long sojourn in Arda have made a lambe for themselves" (WJ:397)

Source:

www.ardalambion.com

~Regards,

Nautilus
 

I guess Pengolodh was speculating a bit on that quote... for I think the Ainulindalë, being told to the Eldar directly by the Valar, should be the most reliable source about this matter. (This quote is from the Ainulindalë). Where is InderjitS to clarify the matter for us when we need him?
 
Where was Pengolodh speculating here?

The Valar did have their own spoken language to use when in bodily form. That the Valar used this language when in a human-like form does not mean that they were perminantly in that form. The Valar arrayed themselves at times.

I don't think anything Pengolodh says of them in Dangweth is inconsistent with Ainulindale, or if so it is not what has been quoted here.

Pengoldoh can not really be more unreliable that anything in the Silmarillion for much of the information in it was told to Elfwine by him and then translated. At least that was Pengolodh's role before the crazy complication of the origin of the Silmarillion.

Edit: That quote from Ardalamion is not from Dangweth it is from Quendi & Eldar.... oops ... but it remains that I do not see how it conflicts with Ainulindale.
 

That's the speculation of Pengolodh, that the Valar would make a language for themselves.
 
Hmm I don't know how to explain that quote from Letters. I haven't read it but it does seem clear.

While Pengolodh in that quote was giving his reasoning for why it can be assumed that the Valar made their own language, he does go on to tell that they know this did happen, because it is recorded in elvish lore, some few of the Eldar learned Valarin, and he even gives some Valarin words, some of which were used by the Eldar, for example Mahanaxar.
 
Silmarillion

You are indeed true but one can argue that In Middle-Earth, outside Beleriand, Morgoth had recruited a lot of easterlings in his service which fought for him later.

I am giving the Quote from Silmarillion at some length. I am in some doubt about the textual accuracy of the text, since most of it would be taken from the Early 1930's Quenta and some probably adapted from the Tale of Years but its the best we have good since in his later writing, Tolkien sadly didn't get to complete the revision of Silmarillion.


The words in Bold indicate to me that the power of Morgoth was much, much greater at the Last Battle then at the Nirnaeth. Imagine the power of the Dragons If they could even momentarily defeat the host of the Valar.

Morgoth had become incarnate,
Myths Transformed

Why did he do so,

Ibid.
Melkor 'incarnated' himself (as Morgoth) permanently. He did this so as to control the hroa, the 'flesh' or physical matter of Arda. He attempted to identify himself with it

Men when they lost their lives never returned, since Elves were bound with the fate of Arda, and as long as Arda endureth they couldn't 'die' that is lose the ability to gain bodily form again, so they could also be reborn again.

I don't think the Valar were 'Incarnates'. They didn't have the yearn of controlling the flesh of the earth, so they didn't need to have a stronger grip of their Hroa.

In the later legandarium, the relative power of Balrogs was increased, and the classic example of the reactive of a common elf is found when Legolas saw the Balrog. He was greatly afraid.
Sure some of the top-notch warriors of the Noldor and Numenoreans, not to mention Sindar might have been able to fight off and beat the Balrogs, but not all could do that.

Could they deal with the flying dragons? The Balrogs? Even the Valarian forces were repelled by the sheer strength of the Flying dragons. And during their five hundred and more years sojourn, how many Balrogs were they able to kill? Two? Disappointing I would say.

Just look at the destruction caused by Glaurung and he was only one single dragon. Just imagine how much destruction a hoard of Dragons might have caused.

Sauron wanted to destroy Numenor because,

1. Of the deeds of their father, which had brought both Sauron and his Master, Humilation.
2. Because of the help Tar-Ministair provided in the Battles of the Second age.
3. Because Numenoreans were invading [or so he thought] in the realm and areas he governed.
4. And most of all, because of the humilation he suffered intially at the hands of Tar-Calion.

Another Interesting Question: If Numenoreans hadn't taken part in the affairs of Middle-Earth in second age, and gained Sauron hate, then would Sauron have left them alone, or would he have thought of them as a potential threat and tried to dispose them off?


Posted by Eriol
Am I the only one who is impressed by the description of Ar-Pharazôn's fleet? I really can't see how the armies of Morgoth could ever defeat that.

Tolkien didn't describe the host of Morgoth at the War of Wrath, with the same eloquence and richness as that of the passage in Akalabeth concerning Tar-Calion's fleet.
If he had done so, I am sure you would have been impressed a great deal.

The 'self-carnation'of Valar is that they took Bodily forms, in the hue of Arda, because they were to live in it till it endured; it is very different from the more çorporeal 'incarnation' of the Children of Eru and even Orcs.

Who says the Ainulindale is written by Penegolodh? It was written by Rumil and Rúmil wasn't speculating, because the idea of Self-carnation doesn't contradict your Quote.
 
As for your question in bold, Beleg, I guess Númenor would attack Sauron in the same way. The rise of pride and warmongering in Númenor was quite independent from Sauron.

Yes, perhaps the description of Ar-Pharazôn's fleet is simply more detailed than that of Morgoth's armies -- but I still think that they thought they had a chance of invading Valinor. That's not a small feat.

And the Ainulindalë, whoever wrote it, was dictated by the Valar, so it can be considered completely reliable -- in my opinion. The contradiction was the Valarin language, and that seems a mystery to me right now. Finally, you seem to have cleared up the matter of the incarnation of the Ainur with the quote from Myths Transformed.
 
Another interesting Quote,

Quendi and Eldar, WOTJ

He is Penegolodh and the Quote is a part of a passage talking about Valarin tongue, as Nóm hinted before and from where Nautilus provdied the reference given in Ardalambion's Quenya Course.

I still think that the 'self-incarnation' of Valar is hugely different from the 'incarnation'of the Children, although Ainur who spend too much of their power on the ordering of their hroa and the desire to control it, if slain, gradually lose their re-incarnative abilities.
 

I do not think he would have left them alone for long. I think he would eventually have tried to bring them under his rule, and when they resist war would break out. It could be that Sauron would have, for a time, thought Numenor too strong to battle with and have just left them alone for awhile, but eventually when his rule in Middle-earth was unquestionable and his power at the height of its potential, I think he would assail them.


It is undeniable Beleg.

Melkor for example, I would say become incarnated only when he lost his ability to 'array' himself. I would say incarnation is not arraying but the bounding of a fea within a hroa... to become as one of the incarnates. But this is technicalities and I know what you mean by 'self-incarnating'... I just don't recall Tolkien using that (correct me if I am wrong) and to me it doesn't seem right.
 
As the First Age progressed, Morgoth's power diminished and Sauron was greater than him in comparison.

Where did you ever get that idea?
Saron - Maia
Morgoth - Vala

End of discussion.


Did Sauron serve Morgoth in the 2nd & 3rd Ages?

No. '(Sauron) was only less evil than his master (Morgoth)in that for long, he served another & not himself. BUT, in later years he rose like a shadow of Morgoth & a ghost of his malice, & walked behind him on the same ruinous path into the void.'

Could the Numenoreans have defeated Morgoth's armies at the height of their power?

Never, if just for the simple fact that they would not have a single warrior that could defeat a balrog.
The only beings that defeated balrogs were Maiar & High Elves - actually, they all just broke even as in each case we know of, both combatants died.

Add in the winged dragons & there's no chance whatsoever.
 

What makes one think that a Man of Westernesse was a warrior inferior to a Noldo or a Sinda?

~Nautilus
 
Infact we are told that the people of Numenor were physically more powerful then the Elves. I am not saying that all the people are very powerful, only that some great, hefty Numenorean would have been a good match for an Elven warrior. We have to remember that some of the people came from the stout House of Hador who were physcially a bit greater then the other Edain kindered. Elendil the tall wrestled with Sauron himself on Mount Doom. A great Numenorean, at the height of his power, would have been a good match for a Balrog.
We dont find an occasion where a Man fights a Balrog, sadly none of the Edainic cheiftains got to fight the Balrogs, so we don't really know how they would have fared against them.
Were the Winged Dragons powerful enough to fly all the way from Middle-earth to Elenna? Won't they be espised and then something could have been done to counter them? Numenor had an added advantage of being an Island and it's people were the greatest marriners of alltime.
 
Well, I was assuming the Numenoreans would be invading M-E & a battle on an open plain would ensure.
Nobody said a thing about INVADING Numenor....

As for Men vs Balrogs, the fact that it wasn't Men but always High Elves fighting balrogs should tell you something.

Could a Numenorean defeat a Elf, Sindar or Noldor in battle?
I'd bet it was possible.

But fighting a balrog isn't just who's the better fighter.
I don't see any Sindar fighting balrogs either, just Noldor.

Remember what Gandalf tells Frodo about The High Elves of Rivendell:

"They do not fear the Ringwraiths, for those who have dwelt in the Blessed Realm live at once in both worlds, and against both the Seen & Unseen they have tremendous power."

So, that's where the High Elves get their power to fight balrogs, Ringwraiths & such.

It's not because they're better with a sword or a spear, it's due to the power that lies within them.

On the other side, it WAS Isildur who 'dealt the enemy (Sauron) his death blow'. Of course, how many High Elves were nearby helping up until that final blow?

"
 
But fighting a balrog isn't just who's the better fighter.
I don't see any Sindar fighting balrogs either, just Noldor.

That was because fate shaped the things in such a way that it was Noldor who participated in all the big fight's against Morgoth. I don't doubt that a Sindar warrior like Elwe or Beleg would have done atleast as good as the Noldor if he would have fought against the Balrogs.



Comeon! You can't be thinking that Balrogs and Ringwraiths are the same? Ringwraiths are the un-dead, while Balrogs for all their heidousness are incarnate spirits! There is a difference between them, and also the Balrog in Moria seemed to possess more terror in its train then a Ringwraith.


On the other side, it WAS Isildur who 'dealt the enemy (Sauron) his death blow'. Of course, how many High Elves were nearby helping up until that final blow?
Well two high-elves couldnt do something which Isildur did.

Well, I was assuming the Numenoreans would be invading M-E & a battle on an open plain would ensure.
Nobody said a thing about INVADING Numenor....
I never asked who would be attacking who, I just ask a generalized question, including all possible scenarios.
I don't that fighting the Balrog would need as much Spirtual power as it wouldneed to fight a ringwraith [Oh and don't you think that the Numenoreans in the Army of Last Alliance would have fought the ringwraiths? pretty successfully too!]
 
No, I think Ringwraiths & balrogs are in the same spirit or 'unseen' realm. Different levels of power, but still necessary to have the power the High Elves or Maiar have in the 'unseen' world to sucessfully oppose them.



Elwe WAS a High Elf. Remember the trip he took to check out Valinor on behalf of the Teleri?
Beleg, sorry since it's your namesake, but he wasn't in the same ballpark power-wise as the High Elves.
Tolkien says as much himself.
 
Beleg, sorry since it's your namesake, but he wasn't in the same ballpark power-wise as the High Elves.

Oh, I won't be too sure of it.
Barring Fingolfin and Feanor, I think that he could hold his own against any other Noldor.
The High-elves were glorified because they had lived in the bless of Aman, which won't strengthen them physically. Elwe can be called a High-elf, but he was primarily a Sindarin and remained in Aman considerably less then the exiled Noldo.
Don't you think Noldor would have great hunters in their race? Amrod and Amros fancied hunting, I am sure other did that too, and still Beleg was called the greatest Huntsman.
Infact Celegorm was a Huntsman in Valinor and was called a friend of Orome and yet that title wasnt granted to him.
And if Beleg was such a great Hunter, in the wild woods of Beleriand he would surely have met with evil and dreadful spirits that might have been leftovers from Morgoth's earlier reign.
To be such a successful hunter he must have had some mettle, not less then that of even the foremost Noldor.



I beg to differ here, IMO no Otherwordly power is needed to defeat the Balrog's, they are not undead, just spirits embodied in the flesh of Arda, but are skilled warriors, possess lethal weapons and have a terifying appearence.



Tolkien says as much himself.

Infact, Tolkien doesn't say that. It is merely an [Incorrect] analogy you are making.
And I believe those that lived in the guarded realm of Doriath also held some spirtual power, due to the influence of Melian.
Tolkien merely mentions that the High-elves [Note Gandalf didn't say 'only' the High elves] weild a tremendous power against undeed [and living]. We know nothing about what type of powers the Sindar [Of Doriath] would have, [Although Legolas, who is a Sindarin Elf wasn't really the bravest thing in Moria, but then again he was bread in a Pre-dominantly Silvan culture, and was born in Thirdage, when the Elves had start fading and their real glory had left them] in an actual battle against a Ringwraith, similarly we also don't know how they would have fared against Balrogs.

Do you have any proof that the Balrogs were Undead?

Infact in Quenta Silmarillion of Morgoth's Ring they are said to be creatures made by Morgoth.
They could be slain while the Ringwraiths couldn't [They could only be destroyed when their respective rings were destroyed or the one ring failed].
 
Infact, Tolkien doesn't say that. It is merely an [Incorrect] analogy you are making.

In fact, Tolkien DOES say that......

The Sil:

'...the Elves had a greater wisdom, and skill & beauty; and those who had dwelt in Valinor and looked upon the Powers as much surpassed the Dark Elves in these things as they in turn surpassed the people of mortal race. Only in the realm of Doriath...did the Sindar come near to match the Calaquendi....'

Then there's the statement, I can't find it off the top of my head, but I think it's either in Of Turin Turambar in The Sil or The Narn in UT, where it is stated (paraphrased) that "even though the Grey Elves were no match for the Noldor, in the ways of Middle-earth, they had a wisdom beyond Men.'



The High-elves were glorified because they had lived in the bless of Aman, which won't strengthen them physically.



Did Gandalf beat Durin's Bane by mere 'warrior' strength?
The battle on The Bridge Of Khazad-Dum is a confrontation of 'magical' power, just as is the spell confrontation in the Chamber Of Mazarbul.



Tolkien merely mentions that the High-elves [Note Gandalf didn't say 'only' the High elves] weild a tremendous power against undeed [and living].

That's not what Gandalf said.
You, Beleg, keep saying 'undead'. Tolkien & I keep saying 'Unseen'.
Since Tolkien makes the statement that there is a 'seen ' realm & an 'unseen' realm, & those two types are direct and all encompassing opposites, we can safely assume that there is only 2 realms, 'Unseen' & 'Seen'. There's no other option. Everything falls into one or the other. As such, Balrogs as well as Ringwraithes, High Elves, Dark Elves, Men, Dwarves & Hobbits must all belong to one, the other or both.
Since High Elves can exist in both at once, I think it's a pretty safe bet that Maiar like Balrogs do too. Gandalf most likely did too, although I doubt any direct evidence either way exists.




We know nothing about what type of powers the Sindar [Of Doriath]

Read the first 2 statements I made. We DO know something: They were less than the High Elves.
Sindar = Dark Elves. High Elves = Calaquendi.
Case closed there.



They could be slain while the Ringwraiths couldn't [They could only be destroyed when their respective rings were destroyed or the one ring failed].

The Lord Of The Nazgul, aka 'Number One', was killed without either of those things happening, now wasn't he?
 
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