Yet when did they perceive that he was a nazgul? Because previously, it was stated in the appendices that it was only until later that this fact was discovered. The wars in the north lasted for some six centuries, how late would this "later" be?Argeleb I died in III 1356 after the Hillmen of Rhudaur made an alliance with Angmar to launch the first war between Angmar and the Dúnedain of the North. From all that we know, that has to be the first experience of the Dúnedain with the Lord of the Nazgûl as Witch-king of Angmar.
So, the blades being solely a Cardolan manufacture implies a reversal of craftmanship hierarchies in Middle-Earth. In my opinion, a consistency-solution, for which you admirably argue, is not possible.Letter #155 said:Anyway, a difference in the use of 'magic' in this story is that it is not to be come by by 'lore' or spells; but is in an inherent power not possessed or attainable by Men as such. Aragorn's 'healing' might be regarded as 'magical', or at least a blend of magic with pharmacy and 'hypnotic' processes. But it is (in theory) reported by hobbits who have very little notions of philosophy and science; while Aragorn is not a pure 'Man', but at long remove one of the 'children of Luthien'.
That’s a very good question. I don’t know when the Dúnedain discovered that the king of Angmar was a Nazgûl, or whether they first realized this or Elrond did, or both together. Perhaps someone has an insight into this?Thorondor_ said:
It is quite possible that the daggers were made following the death of the last Prince of Cardolan in 1409 and put there well after his funerary rites were completed. Remember, the Dúnedain of Cardolan used the barrows as defense works against Angmar, at least once in 1409 and probably on other occasions. It would be reasonable for them to prepare weapons caches in the places they had chosen as refuges and strongholds, as well as food, water, clothing, etc., to withstand a siege. I cannot answer your question with any certainty.Thorondor_ said:The last prince was burried in 1409, along with many treasures. Could the blades have been put there after his burrial? I personally doubt that, as the mounds were said to have been revered by the dunedain. If I am correct, then this would reduce the period of the making of the rings to some 53 years.
I don’t know. I do know that Tolkien says on more than one occasion that the barrow-blades were made by the Dúnedain during their wars with Angmar; since he wrote the story, I have no reason within that framework to doubt him.Thorondor_ said:How come it is only a fraction of the dunedain tha are able to produce such formidable weapons against the nazgul? Why aren't the elves capable, the most gifted Children in terms of creative power? Or even the dwarves [who are said to be unmatched in making iron weapons and we also know they are using magic in their craft]?
You might also consider whether the swords were not “magical,” but were rather intended to “undo” the necromancy of Sauron in making the Ringwraiths. From that perspective, a clever person might argue that the daggers were “anti-magical.” Tolkien does not seem to address this possibility in his published writings, and it seems to me rather an unnecessary stretch: too clever by half.Alongside the final paragraph, Tolkien has written ‘But the Númenóreans used “spells” in making swords?’
I think from the footnote that Tolkien must immediately have been aware of the inconsistency he introduced in this letter. The text of the Tale and the footnote indicate that the barrow-blades remain the work of the Northern Dúnedain, whether of Cardolan or not, or before or after III 1409.Thorondor_ said:So, the blades being solely a Cardolan manufacture implies a reversal of craftmanship hierarchies in Middle-Earth. In my opinion, a consistency-solution, for which you admirably argue, is not possible.
ingolmo said:Here's another quote to convince everyone that Eowyn killed him.
From The Return of the King, Chapter 8: The Houses of Healing. Said by Aragorn to Eowyn:
'Eowyn Eomund's daughter, awake! For your enemy has passed away!'
I think the words, 'has passed away' prove that Frodo did not kill the Black Captain. And Merry only distracted him, I think everyone's understood that.
But you see after the Eowyn thrusted her blade into the Lord of the nine,his wails could still be heard.Sauron didn't really die.He is a mair and rhus won't die.He however will probably be sent to the void along with his master and yeah, a finally battle will take placeI don't get the point how Frodo killed the Witch King, Eowyn killed him, it's as simple as that. Frodo killed Sauron and thus killed evil, and unless the Witch King was a symbol or representation of evil instead of Sauron, I don't know how Frodo killed him. And Eowyn killed him before Frodo destroyed the Ring, so there.
"Eowyn, Eowyn!" cried Merry. Then tottering, struggling up, with her last strength she drove her sword between crown and mantle, as the great shoulders bowed before her. The sword broke sparkling into many shards. The crown rolled away with a clang. Eowyn fell forward onto her falled foe. But lo! the mantle and hauberk were empty. Shapeless they lay now on the ground, torn and tumbled; and a cry went up into the shuddering air, and faded into a shrill wailing, passing with the wind, a voice bodiless and thin that died, and was swallowed up, and was never heard again in that age of this world.'
/QUOTE]
I have a question about what happened here. If the Black Captain was mortal and had a physical body, then why did his body disappear when Eowyn struck him. This would seem to indicate that he did not have a mortal body.
'A mortal, Frodo, who keeps one of the Great Rings, does not die, but he does not grow or obtain more life, he merely continues, until at last every minute is a weariness.
Fellowship of the Ring: Chapter 2. The Shadow of the Past
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