Radaghast
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- May 31, 2021
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There was a question on Quora that I was going to address in the 'One Adaptation to Rule Them All' thread. However, the question pertains to Frodo, who seems to be fairly underrepresented when it comes to analyzing the films' depictions of characters. There seem to be more complaints about Faramir, Denethor and Aragorn than Frodo, and this is very curious to me, since he is most principle character in the book. The author of the Fandomentals article (the impetus for that thread), for instance, has little to say about Frodo, other than that he's too young in the movies but otherwise fares "better than most others mentioned" in the article (mainly Arwen, Éowyn and Faramir), which is extremely puzzling to me. IMHO, what the movies do to him deserves an article or thread, or even an essay, all to itself. Thus, I think it's high time for a such an analysis.
The question is, "Why didn't the Nazgul just kill Frodo on Weathertop instead of only stabbing him?". At first glance, it might seem a silly question, especially if the asker has read the book. But, what if they haven't? One can't just assume that they have; whether or not they should read the book is a separate matter (I do agree they definitely should, though, to be fair, one can't just expect a movie watcher to pick up the book and read it one sitting). But if the question comes from the perspective of a movie watcher, it's a fair question. According to the information given by the movie, there is no reason for the Ringwraiths not to do one of the following: 1) Kill Frodo and take his corpse; 2) capture him alive; or 3) take the Ring. There is plenty of time for the Ringwraiths to do any of these things and run, before Super-Aragorn™ comes charging in with his torches to handily kick their butts; also, there's no reason some of them couldn't fight Aragorn while some others abscond with Frodo. There is also no reason for the Witch-king to stab Frodo particularly in his shoulder.
Speaking of which, some questions unexpectedly increase my understanding of the book, as this one does. It either never occurred to me or I simply forgot that the reason Frodo is stabbed in the shoulder and not closer to the heart is that he attacks the Witch-king first and the WK's stroke thus misses its intended target, Frodo's torso, piercing the shoulder instead. But this underlines a more important point: that Frodo attacks. Not only does this display Frodo's bravery in the face of paralyzing terror, it shows how this bravery and initiative saves him from immediately becoming a slave to the Ringwraiths. This (as well as Frodo's battle cry) also contributes to the Ringwraiths retreating, and opting to wait for the sword sliver to travel to Frodo's heart.
All this apparently whooshed straight over Peter Jackson and both of his screenwriters' skulls after they read the book. Or were they being deliberately obtuse? Because there is no good reason for this change (or any change regarding Frodo for that matter). No matter how you look at it, this is not only incorrect to the story, on the face of it, based on visual information given by the film, it is also bad. I challenge anyone to try and convince me why it isn't a terrible bit of film-making. The movie scene follows the basic sequence of events without really looking at why they occur, and changes the most significant part of it. Gandalf's talk with Frodo in Rivendell after he awakens is hideously glossed over in the film. If it's covered in an extended edition, why? It's important enough to cover in the main cut.
I could go on, and I will, but not in this post. Consider this "Exhibit A" of the crimes the movies commit against Frodo...
*sigh*... Pathetic...😡
The question is, "Why didn't the Nazgul just kill Frodo on Weathertop instead of only stabbing him?". At first glance, it might seem a silly question, especially if the asker has read the book. But, what if they haven't? One can't just assume that they have; whether or not they should read the book is a separate matter (I do agree they definitely should, though, to be fair, one can't just expect a movie watcher to pick up the book and read it one sitting). But if the question comes from the perspective of a movie watcher, it's a fair question. According to the information given by the movie, there is no reason for the Ringwraiths not to do one of the following: 1) Kill Frodo and take his corpse; 2) capture him alive; or 3) take the Ring. There is plenty of time for the Ringwraiths to do any of these things and run, before Super-Aragorn™ comes charging in with his torches to handily kick their butts; also, there's no reason some of them couldn't fight Aragorn while some others abscond with Frodo. There is also no reason for the Witch-king to stab Frodo particularly in his shoulder.
Speaking of which, some questions unexpectedly increase my understanding of the book, as this one does. It either never occurred to me or I simply forgot that the reason Frodo is stabbed in the shoulder and not closer to the heart is that he attacks the Witch-king first and the WK's stroke thus misses its intended target, Frodo's torso, piercing the shoulder instead. But this underlines a more important point: that Frodo attacks. Not only does this display Frodo's bravery in the face of paralyzing terror, it shows how this bravery and initiative saves him from immediately becoming a slave to the Ringwraiths. This (as well as Frodo's battle cry) also contributes to the Ringwraiths retreating, and opting to wait for the sword sliver to travel to Frodo's heart.
All this apparently whooshed straight over Peter Jackson and both of his screenwriters' skulls after they read the book. Or were they being deliberately obtuse? Because there is no good reason for this change (or any change regarding Frodo for that matter). No matter how you look at it, this is not only incorrect to the story, on the face of it, based on visual information given by the film, it is also bad. I challenge anyone to try and convince me why it isn't a terrible bit of film-making. The movie scene follows the basic sequence of events without really looking at why they occur, and changes the most significant part of it. Gandalf's talk with Frodo in Rivendell after he awakens is hideously glossed over in the film. If it's covered in an extended edition, why? It's important enough to cover in the main cut.
I could go on, and I will, but not in this post. Consider this "Exhibit A" of the crimes the movies commit against Frodo...
*sigh*... Pathetic...😡
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