CirdanLinweilin
The Wandering Wastrel
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Tolkien in his Letters confirms it himself.But there's nothing in the book itself which tells us this?
CL

Tolkien in his Letters confirms it himself.But there's nothing in the book itself which tells us this?
As I said in my previous post, I think we are in the realms of The Canon debate, which to mmy mind will probably never be finished.
Gollum had his chance at redemption and muffed it. I am going to be rude and cite two long passages from Letters of JRR Tolkien. First from Letter 181:
I think there is considerable and ancient confusion between the omniscience of a Being outside Time, to whom all the events of Time are immediately visible and comprehensible, and predestination for creatures under free will. To a creature passing through Time, the difference can seem almost a mockery: why would the Author of the story permit a situation in which a creature fails? Is that not predestination? To which Tolkien answers, the creature makes its own decisions, and “failure” or “success” depends upon other matters. In Frodo’s case, his failure was rectified by Gollum’s intervention. In Gollum’s case, his failure led to his literally overstepping his bounds. But Tolkien also surmises that, had Gollum remained faithful, when Frodo claimed the Ring, he would have seized it plunged into the Cracks to Doom anyway. (And I cannot find the citation tonight, though I believe it is also in Letters.) I suppose you can argue that Gollum was “destined” to die destroying the Ring; but with the Ring destroyed, Gollum would soon die, as he foresaw.But where does it say that the "other forces" have to be Eru, or a religious impulse? Couldn't we equally well say that it is "fate"? Whatever fate means to an individual?
Exactly!! This may be the source of Tolkien’s declared dislike of allegory. The allegory in Lewis’ Space Trilogy and Narnia stories is all too apparent. The allegory, or rather applicability, in Tolkien’s stories is far more subtle and lends itself to a great many other interpretations. Tolkien’s intent was to address “human universals, which transcend any one creed.”Except for the destruction of Númenor, it the books themselves, it is impossible to notice any intervention by Eru.
[That was p]art of the design, at least in LoTR, as JRRT himself also stated…
…What people of the most diverse backgrounds are responding to in JRRT's writings are human universals, which transcend any one creed. JRRT may have seen them as fundamentally Catholic, and very likely rightly so. But not exclusively, two concepts that seem to get confused all too often.
The books published during Tolkien’s lifetime are, I think, the “canon”. All the other material, including Letters, HoMe, the well named Unfinished Tales, and even Silmarillion are non-canonical, though the stories make sense taken together. You can read The Hobbit, enjoy it on its own though you read nothing else; likewise The Lord of the Rings, never reading anything else. If you are then so inclined, and a little mad, you can plunge into the deeper material, as we do in this forum; but there is no requirement to do that to enjoy the “canon”, particularly the four main books.But in LoTR itself, there is no such confirmation; do we then say that the much-wider audience of the book as opposed to the smaller number of people who have read The Letters are actually worse off for not "knowing" this?
Surely if Tolkien expressly wanted this to be part of the book, he would have found a way to present it? As he didn't, don't we need to take a more distanced view of a comment written in a letter?
I suppose this is all part of the "what is Canon" debate, which I doubt will ever be resolved any time soon!
Well, sheesh I didn't need a lecture for something I KNOW I SAW AND READ.Gollum had his chance at redemption and muffed it. I am going to be rude and cite two long passages from Letters of JRR Tolkien. First from Letter 181:
The Quest was bound to fail as a piece of world-plan, and also was bound to end in disaster as the story of humble Frodo’s … sanctification. … Frodo … “apostatized” – and I have had one savage letter, crying out that he sh[oul]d have been executed as a traitor… I did not foresee that … we should enter a dark age in which the … disruption of personality would rival that of Mordor and … present us with the … problem of honest men of good will broken down into apostates and traitors.But at this point the “salvation” of the world and Frodo’s own “salvation” is achieved by his previous pity and forgiveness of injury. At any point any prudent person would have told Frodo that Gollum would certainly betray him… He did … injure him in the end – but by a “grace”, that last betrayal was at a precise juncture when the final evil deed was the most beneficial thing any one c[oul]d have done for Frodo! By a situation created by his “forgiveness”, he was saved himself, and relieved of his burden. … Into the ultimate judgment upon Gollum I would not care to enquire. … Gollum was pitiable, but he ended in persistent wickedness, and the fact that this worked good was no credit to him. His marvelous courage and endurance, as great as Frodo and Sam’s or greater, being devoted to evil was portentous, but not honourable. I am afraid, whatever our beliefs, we have to face the fact that there are persons who yield to temptation, reject their chances of nobility or salvation, and appear to be “damnable”. … But we who are all “in the same boat” must not usurp the Judge. The domination of the Ring was much too strong for the mean soul of Sméagol. But he would have never had to endure it if he had not become a mean sort of thief before it crossed his path. … By temporizing, not fixing the still not wholly corrupt Sméagol-will towards good in the debate in the slag hole, he weakened himself for the final chance when dawning love of Frodo was too easily withered by the jealousy of Sam before Shelob’s lair. After that he was lost.Then Letter 192, the letter just after the one you cite, CL:
I think rather of the mysterious last petitions of the Lord’s Prayer: Lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil. A petition against something that cannot happen is unmeaning. There exists the possibility of being placed in positions beyond one’s power. In which case (as I believe) salvation from ruin will depend on something apparently unconnected: the general sanctity (and humility and mercy) of the sacrificial person. I did not “arrange” the deliverance in this case: it again follows the logic of the story. (Gollum had had his chance of repentance, and of returning generosity with love; and had fallen off the knife-edge.) … But we can at least judge them by the will and intentions with which they entered the Sammath Naur, and not demand impossible feats of will, which could only happen in stories unconcerned with real moral and mental probability.…Frodo “failed”. … [T]he power of Evil in the world is not finally resistible by incarnate creatures, however “good”; and the Writer of the Story is not one of us.I think there is considerable and ancient confusion between the omniscience of a Being outside Time, to whom all the events of Time are immediately visible and comprehensible, and predestination for creatures under free will. To a creature passing through Time, the difference can seem almost a mockery: why would the Author of the story permit a situation in which a creature fails? Is that not predestination? To which Tolkien answers, the creature makes its own decisions, and “failure” or “success” depends upon other matters. In Frodo’s case, his failure was rectified by Gollum’s intervention. In Gollum’s case, his failure led to his literally overstepping his bounds. But Tolkien also surmises that, had Gollum remained faithful, when Frodo claimed the Ring, he would have seized it plunged into the Cracks to Doom anyway. (And I cannot find the citation tonight, though I believe it is also in Letters.) I suppose you can argue that Gollum was “destined” to die destroying the Ring; but with the Ring destroyed, Gollum would soon die, as he foresaw.
Exactly!! This may be the source of Tolkien’s declared dislike of allegory. The allegory in Lewis’ Space Trilogy and Narnia stories is all too apparent. The allegory, or rather applicability, in Tolkien’s stories is far more subtle and lends itself to a great many other interpretations. Tolkien’s intent was to address “human universals, which transcend any one creed.” The books published during Tolkien’s lifetime are, I think, the “canon”. All the other material, including Letters, HoMe, the well named Unfinished Tales, and even Silmarillion are non-canonical, though the stories make sense taken together. You can read The Hobbit, enjoy it on its own though you read nothing else; likewise The Lord of the Rings, never reading anything else. If you are then so inclined, and a little mad, you can plunge into the deeper material, as we do in this forum; but there is no requirement to do that to enjoy the “canon”, particularly the four main books.
The stories Christopher Tolkien presents from his father’s trove of notes and tales do not always agree. Elthir (once Galin: I like and miss the moniker “Galin”, but it is not mine to choose his moniker) and I have often discussed the alterations in Tolkien’s telling of the history of Galadriel in this forum. CJRT also notes the changes in the main stories of the First Age: Beren and Lúthien, the Children of Húrin, and the Fall of Gondolin. Three separate tellings of the Downfall of Númenor are presented. And of course, there is the alteration in the characters that became Frodo and Aragorn as The Lord of the Rings came to be. The stories published after his lifetime are not Tolkien’s canon, but additional materials from his mythology.
Someone asked me to poke my head in the forums and now I regret it.Well, sheesh I didn't need a lecture for something I KNOW I SAW AND READ.
SHEESH!
I agree with the Canon comprising works published in Tolkien's lifetime, but I've always regarded The Silmarillion as almost canonical, seeing that it was published relatively quickly after his death, and was , though I may be mistaken, a fairly finished work needing only minor editing by Christopher Tolkien?Gollum had his chance at redemption and muffed it. I am going to be rude and cite two long passages from Letters of JRR Tolkien. First from Letter 181:
The Quest was bound to fail as a piece of world-plan, and also was bound to end in disaster as the story of humble Frodo’s … sanctification. … Frodo … “apostatized” – and I have had one savage letter, crying out that he sh[oul]d have been executed as a traitor… I did not foresee that … we should enter a dark age in which the … disruption of personality would rival that of Mordor and … present us with the … problem of honest men of good will broken down into apostates and traitors.But at this point the “salvation” of the world and Frodo’s own “salvation” is achieved by his previous pity and forgiveness of injury. At any point any prudent person would have told Frodo that Gollum would certainly betray him… He did … injure him in the end – but by a “grace”, that last betrayal was at a precise juncture when the final evil deed was the most beneficial thing any one c[oul]d have done for Frodo! By a situation created by his “forgiveness”, he was saved himself, and relieved of his burden. … Into the ultimate judgment upon Gollum I would not care to enquire. … Gollum was pitiable, but he ended in persistent wickedness, and the fact that this worked good was no credit to him. His marvelous courage and endurance, as great as Frodo and Sam’s or greater, being devoted to evil was portentous, but not honourable. I am afraid, whatever our beliefs, we have to face the fact that there are persons who yield to temptation, reject their chances of nobility or salvation, and appear to be “damnable”. … But we who are all “in the same boat” must not usurp the Judge. The domination of the Ring was much too strong for the mean soul of Sméagol. But he would have never had to endure it if he had not become a mean sort of thief before it crossed his path. … By temporizing, not fixing the still not wholly corrupt Sméagol-will towards good in the debate in the slag hole, he weakened himself for the final chance when dawning love of Frodo was too easily withered by the jealousy of Sam before Shelob’s lair. After that he was lost.Then Letter 192, the letter just after the one you cite, CL:
I think rather of the mysterious last petitions of the Lord’s Prayer: Lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil. A petition against something that cannot happen is unmeaning. There exists the possibility of being placed in positions beyond one’s power. In which case (as I believe) salvation from ruin will depend on something apparently unconnected: the general sanctity (and humility and mercy) of the sacrificial person. I did not “arrange” the deliverance in this case: it again follows the logic of the story. (Gollum had had his chance of repentance, and of returning generosity with love; and had fallen off the knife-edge.) … But we can at least judge them by the will and intentions with which they entered the Sammath Naur, and not demand impossible feats of will, which could only happen in stories unconcerned with real moral and mental probability.…Frodo “failed”. … [T]he power of Evil in the world is not finally resistible by incarnate creatures, however “good”; and the Writer of the Story is not one of us.I think there is considerable and ancient confusion between the omniscience of a Being outside Time, to whom all the events of Time are immediately visible and comprehensible, and predestination for creatures under free will. To a creature passing through Time, the difference can seem almost a mockery: why would the Author of the story permit a situation in which a creature fails? Is that not predestination? To which Tolkien answers, the creature makes its own decisions, and “failure” or “success” depends upon other matters. In Frodo’s case, his failure was rectified by Gollum’s intervention. In Gollum’s case, his failure led to his literally overstepping his bounds. But Tolkien also surmises that, had Gollum remained faithful, when Frodo claimed the Ring, he would have seized it plunged into the Cracks to Doom anyway. (And I cannot find the citation tonight, though I believe it is also in Letters.) I suppose you can argue that Gollum was “destined” to die destroying the Ring; but with the Ring destroyed, Gollum would soon die, as he foresaw.
Exactly!! This may be the source of Tolkien’s declared dislike of allegory. The allegory in Lewis’ Space Trilogy and Narnia stories is all too apparent. The allegory, or rather applicability, in Tolkien’s stories is far more subtle and lends itself to a great many other interpretations. Tolkien’s intent was to address “human universals, which transcend any one creed.” The books published during Tolkien’s lifetime are, I think, the “canon”. All the other material, including Letters, HoMe, the well named Unfinished Tales, and even Silmarillion are non-canonical, though the stories make sense taken together. You can read The Hobbit, enjoy it on its own though you read nothing else; likewise The Lord of the Rings, never reading anything else. If you are then so inclined, and a little mad, you can plunge into the deeper material, as we do in this forum; but there is no requirement to do that to enjoy the “canon”, particularly the four main books.
The stories Christopher Tolkien presents from his father’s trove of notes and tales do not always agree. Elthir (once Galin: I like and miss the moniker “Galin”, but it is not mine to choose his moniker) and I have often discussed the alterations in Tolkien’s telling of the history of Galadriel in this forum. CJRT also notes the changes in the main stories of the First Age: Beren and Lúthien, the Children of Húrin, and the Fall of Gondolin. Three separate tellings of the Downfall of Númenor are presented. And of course, there is the alteration in the characters that became Frodo and Aragorn as The Lord of the Rings came to be. The stories published after his lifetime are not Tolkien’s canon, but additional materials from his mythology.
Well, sheesh I didn't need a lecture for something I KNOW I SAW AND READ.
SHEESH!
Ach! No offense intended, CL, and I’m sorry you took offense! Not everyone has Letters: I thought I was following up on your post.Someone asked me to poke my head in the forums and now I regret it.
Thanks guys!
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I agree with the Canon comprising works published in Tolkien's lifetime, but I've always regarded The Silmarillion as almost canonical ( . . . ) and was , though I may be mistaken, a fairly finished work needing only minor editing by Christopher Tolkien?
You reply does nor address TrackerOrc's question. The letter was never incorporated into the text of any revised edition, so JRRT's statement in his letter remains outside the book.Tolkien in his Letters confirms it himself.But there's nothing in the book itself which tells us this?
CL
Elthir said:( . . . ) but my take from The History of Middle-Earth series is that the Silmarillion was far from completed/updated, although the characterization of "far" might differ from person to person. (edit blather) . . . And then of course, he ultimately gave us a nicely detailed textual history too!
Ah, which leads me once again to the conundrum I always face! I read HoME years and years ago, but have basically forgotten most of what I read. (I think there was an awful thing about Strider originally being a Hobbit called Trotter?).Sorry, off topic again. For Tracker Orc, there's something from Christopher Tolkien in The History of Middle-Earth series volume 1 about why (I think) he went ahead with publishing HOME, after noting some references to the 1977 Silmarillion with respect to how much of it "was JRRT" so to speak.