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🧝Galadriel in the Amazon Series

This reminds me of another thread where these very points were discussed. In general, I agree with you.

However, my position may differ in this one detail, that I do not consider it entirely out of the question that, had Tolkien lived as long as a Numenorian, he would (in extreme cases) have subsequently brought out a few changes.
These changes, although not in direct contradiction to previous releases, would put the story in a very different light, like that weird thing about the One Ring that originally just made Bilbo invisible...
The fact that the original description of the effect (or non-description of the negative effects) is somehow strange and suspicious in retrospect, and led to a revision in the new editions post LotR, is finally explained very well by a trick also Middle Earth-immanent.

Nevertheless, it is evidence that one should not set published works as final fact, but rather view them as the version that has been handed down through the ages from a copy or retelling of the Red Book, etc., which can make any serious, subsequent change theoretically possible.

In addition, one could also learn from Christopher that JRR now and then jumped back to one of the earlier versions after several changes of mind (no matter which topic it was about, but prominent there are e.g. the orcs) also after advanced time and considerations.

Consequently, I would say the same: Yes, published works have the highest rank, then come in chronological order his unpublished versions.
However, one should always keep open the possibility that he would have ultimately still somehow decided differently (or yet again as before).

In any case, I wouldn't ultimately commit to a specific version on issues where JRR apparently wasn't definitively sure or ended up contradicting previously published works. There should be no problem in admitting different possibilities that JRR considered, regardless of the publication status and regardless of the time, even if these two "coordinates" of course influence the probability extremely.

Everyone may also like to determine these probabilities himself according to his own system, but an ultimate canon does not really exist there in my opinion, because the premise or definition of "canon" already excludes to consider (in this case quite) legitimate alternatives. At most, one could say that he thought this way or that way in the year XY...

But let's not get it wrong: I don't mean to say that everything is completely arbitrary and open to free interpretation, as is often unfortunately done anyway in film adaptations for various reasons.
In 99% of the cases we would probably agree, and in the remaining one percent I would say, yes, it is probably as your system provides, but I also keep open other possibilities - based on his texts and his way of thinking - of course as I interpret them, and depending on my knowledge of JRRT's works and statements, and aware that he has changed certain views over time, again based on his character and experiences. 😉

But anyway, that's certainly way too philosophical and nerdy for the topic of this thread and sub-forum.
 
However, my position may differ in this one detail, that I do not consider it entirely out of the question that, had Tolkien lived as long as a Numenorian, he would (in extreme cases) have subsequently brought out a few changes.

I don't consider it entirely out of the question either, but . . .


. . . I find that I don't get very far going down the path of possibility (in the following application, anyway).

If I post about the Finarfinian family tree for example, how compelling would it be for me to always end by noting the mere possibility that Tolkien might have changed his mind about Orodreth again.

Or, even if we are out of the mere "ether of possibility", for example (from Unfinished Tales): "It was my father's intention ultimately to transform Sador, the old serving Man in Húrin's House in Dor-Lomin, into a Drûg."

Aha! Evidence! A reason to say something like: "if Tolkien had lived longer, he would have . . ."

But then again, if Tolkien is (as I sometimes put it) "not against changing his mind", do we really know Sador is a Drûg (as a fact) until JRRT does change the story -- and then again-again, do we really know until Tolkien chooses to publish this fact. . . as, before publication, it's possible that he'd revert back to the earlier idea?

Or something
 
And then again-again-again, what compelling reason do we have to believe that Tolkien would not have ultimately transformed Sador into a Drûg?

And so winds the path!
 
Give in to the dark side . . . which in this case could be sunny side up!
 
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