norrinradd
Member
- Joined
- Jan 26, 2020
- Messages
- 101
Hi everyone. First of all; not only members but also many people from outside follow this forum. My last topics turned out to be a fight rather than brainstorming, and I think that for the last time, we should put the point together by taking the ideas of each of you in a rational approach.
Even if we assumed that Tolkien rejected “Black Easterling” epithet and used “Shadow of the East” epithet instead of BE in the present version, Why would Tolkien use the word "East" again in the present version (if he had a purpose to correct, or fix, that Khamul was not from the East)? Therefore, Tolkien wanted to show again that Khamul is related to the “East” while writing the present version. From the information in Tolkien's sources, there is nothing to argue that Khamul was not from the East. Also, the word “East” literally means Rhun in Middle-Earth (According to UT). Therefore, there is no doubt that when Tolkien used “East” word, which means Rhun when using “Shadow of the East”. In addition, Men tribes living in Rhun (East) are also generally called Easterlings (according to UT, again).
Considering SE epithet (and if you want to consider BE epithet in the rejected), if we cannot call Khamul an Easterling, what is its basis and source? Can we make it reasonable (or conveice) for any Tolkien’s sources that Khamul was sent east by Sauron, that Khamul was not an Easterling, and that Khamul's SE epithet was a misunderstanding by the west? (According to this last logic; Khamul had became Sauron’s servant before Khamul was Nazgul. According to these conditions; Sauron didn't need to “ensnare” him by giving one of the 9 rings to Khamul, because Khamul was already his servant).
How should we interpret SE most reasonably? (BE evokes something, even though it was in the rejected passage because “East” word was not given up by Tolkien)
Thanks to everyone in advance.
Even if we assumed that Tolkien rejected “Black Easterling” epithet and used “Shadow of the East” epithet instead of BE in the present version, Why would Tolkien use the word "East" again in the present version (if he had a purpose to correct, or fix, that Khamul was not from the East)? Therefore, Tolkien wanted to show again that Khamul is related to the “East” while writing the present version. From the information in Tolkien's sources, there is nothing to argue that Khamul was not from the East. Also, the word “East” literally means Rhun in Middle-Earth (According to UT). Therefore, there is no doubt that when Tolkien used “East” word, which means Rhun when using “Shadow of the East”. In addition, Men tribes living in Rhun (East) are also generally called Easterlings (according to UT, again).
Considering SE epithet (and if you want to consider BE epithet in the rejected), if we cannot call Khamul an Easterling, what is its basis and source? Can we make it reasonable (or conveice) for any Tolkien’s sources that Khamul was sent east by Sauron, that Khamul was not an Easterling, and that Khamul's SE epithet was a misunderstanding by the west? (According to this last logic; Khamul had became Sauron’s servant before Khamul was Nazgul. According to these conditions; Sauron didn't need to “ensnare” him by giving one of the 9 rings to Khamul, because Khamul was already his servant).
How should we interpret SE most reasonably? (BE evokes something, even though it was in the rejected passage because “East” word was not given up by Tolkien)
Thanks to everyone in advance.

