Mannish magic
Also of note is that this 'letter' is actually a portion of a draft for letter #154 where this portion of the letter was excised from the sent version.
I think that if it were completely absent from Man's 'nature', then several of his own plot devices would fail; this could be the reason why it was excised.
But I think we can infer that 'normal' (Middle and Dark according to the Númenórean classification?) Men didn't know magic, but other 'special' branches of the Human Race, like the Dúnedain and Drúedain (but not the Periain) used magic.
I'm still not sure about the Edain of the First Age. An interesting note is that they had so called wise-women; Andreth seems to have been a seer.
There is actually a footnote attached to the text I quoted where Tolkien questions his own statement's veracity: 'But the Numenoreans used "spells" in making swords?'Originally posted by Nóm
I don't have access to the Letters right now, and have read very little of them, but because of the quote Maerbenn has provided I wonder how Tolkien explained some of the apparant use of 'magic' by men. The blades, and Isildur's curse upon those oathbreakers for example.
I wonder if he did explain these things, or if he was unsure about them. Maerbenn, do you know if there is anything like this in Letters?
Also of note is that this 'letter' is actually a portion of a draft for letter #154 where this portion of the letter was excised from the sent version.
I think that if it were completely absent from Man's 'nature', then several of his own plot devices would fail; this could be the reason why it was excised.
But I think we can infer that 'normal' (Middle and Dark according to the Númenórean classification?) Men didn't know magic, but other 'special' branches of the Human Race, like the Dúnedain and Drúedain (but not the Periain) used magic.
I'm still not sure about the Edain of the First Age. An interesting note is that they had so called wise-women; Andreth seems to have been a seer.
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