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Could Hyarmendacil have defeated 👁️Sauron?

CWOBrien

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In other words, could Gondor c. 1050 have defeated Mordor c. 3019?

Obviously, Gondor at the end of the third age was able to defeat Sauron's forces on the Pelennor Fields. I'm talking about an actual campaign. We know Gondor went into prolonged decline for the latter half of the third age. But at the height of its power under Hyarmendacil - a highly accomplished military leader - could it have taken the fight to Sauron and bested him the way the Last Alliance did?
 
At the height of its power, Gondor dominated the territory that had been Mordor. I suppose Gondor at the height of its power surpassed that which it possessed in alliance with Arnor in the Last Alliance, but of course, the Elves were no longer in alliance with them. And while Gondor was able to defeat the combined armies of Minas Morgul and the Southrons on the Pelennor Field in alliance with Rohan and the army Aragorn brought from Pelargir (the Easterlings that beset the North Road in Anórien did not enter the battle, fortunately), it was still a near-run thing until Aragorn arrived. Gandalf observed in “The Last Debate” that, “Hardly has our strength sufficed to beat off the first great assault. The next will be greater.”

You must also reckon that Ciryaher Hyarmendacil I ruled from Osgiliath, which was still a populous city, probably at its height as well, and controlled Minas Ithil, which would not fall for another thousand years, as well as South Gondor, Near Harad, and Umbar, as well as the territory as far north as the Undeeps north of the Argonath and all of what was later the Wold of Rohan south of the Limlight. Gondor’s power extended along the Ered Lithui north of Mordor, it controlled the Towers of the Teeth, Cirith Ungol, and even “the old castle of Durthang” (Return of the King, “The Land of Shadow”: the old castle-become-Orc-hold Sam and Frodo saw before they were overtaken by the Orcs and their slave-drivers) at the north end of the Ephel Dúath west of Udûn where the Ephel Dúath and the Ered Lithui met. Gondor dominated the region of Rhovanion and east to the far side of the Sea of Rhûn. Sauron was ensconced in Dol Guldur maintaining a low profile.

By the end of the Third Age, Gondor’s territory, even in alliance with Rohan, was greatly reduced, perhaps to a third of less of its former realm, maybe even a quarter. “[M]uch of the best blood in Gondor was shed” at the battle of the Crossings of Erui during the Kin-Strife of 1432-1448, at the end of which the followers of Castamir the Usurper established themselves with the fleet of Gondor(!) at Umbar, consisting not only of much of the merchant fleet of Gondor and nearly all its naval power, but of a great many noble and well-trained folk of Gondor, much weakening the kingdom.

Could Byzantium at its height, around AD 600, have defeated the Ottoman Caliphate of 1453? By 1453, Constantinople had lost nearly all its territory, its resources, its people and numbers, yet it still put forth a mighty effort in the siege that led to the ruin of Byzantium and the fall of Constantine XI Palaiologos. But these are apples-to-oranges comparisons: Neither the Ottoman Turks could approach Constantinople at its height, nor the armies of Sauron approach Minas Tirith at the height of Osgiliath’s power when Minas Anor was but a protective fortress. Time, place, and circumstances determine much of the outcome of battle and war.

Consider these: had Napoleon not suffered hemorrhoids so that his attack was delayed by hours, would he still have lost to Wellington and Blücher at Waterloo? Had J.E.B. Stuart been at hand when needed, had Stonewall Jackson not been wounded and still alive and in command, had Robert E Lee not suffered a heart attack, would the Confederacy still have been defeated by Meade at Gettysburg? Had the field at Agincourt not been soaking wet, would Henry V still have defeated the Dauphin and his enormous army?
 
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In other words, could Gondor c. 1050 have defeated Mordor c. 3019?

Obviously, Gondor at the end of the third age was able to defeat Sauron's forces on the Pelennor Fields. I'm talking about an actual campaign. We know Gondor went into prolonged decline for the latter half of the third age. But at the height of its power under Hyarmendacil - a highly accomplished military leader - could it have taken the fight to Sauron and bested him the way the Last Alliance did?
I think they may have been able too. But correct me if I’m wrong, I don’t believe that Sauron had returned to Mordor as of that time and declared himself openly. In fact I’m positive. They probably could have continued to push east and conquered. But the descendants of Numenor were men of peace not war. And without cause, they would not have sought to conquer for the sake of conquering. Still I believe they could have, I am sure the Kingdom of Arthedain would have allied with them. Perhaps no elves. But I believe they could have conquered every thing to east of where they stopped had they been so inclined.

In other words, could Gondor c. 1050 have defeated Mordor c. 3019?

Obviously, Gondor at the end of the third age was able to defeat Sauron's forces on the Pelennor Fields. I'm talking about an actual campaign. We know Gondor went into prolonged decline for the latter half of the third age. But at the height of its power under Hyarmendacil - a highly accomplished military leader - could it have taken the fight to Sauron and bested him the way the Last Alliance did?
 
OFC yes, in spite of how Gondor would win. Like a piece of cake, or Pyrryhic? During the Last Alliance, Gondor is possibly already strong enough to take on Sauron on it's own while Sauron is much stronger than your settings. It goes without saying that what will happen if Sauron has to face Gondor during it's height.

If your "Mordor" is a faction's name instead of location's, I'd say Gondor might get a Pyrryhic one for it's location might be Dol Guldur due to logistic reasons. Don't forget, even Numenor can't wage war against Gil-Galad.
 
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