Ancalagon
Quality, not Quantity!
- Joined
- Aug 20, 2001
- Messages
- 1,778
Having ruled Gondor for thousands of years, did the ruling Steward have the right to reject Aragorns claim to the throne?
If Faramir referred to Boromir as a 'Prince of Gondor' and Denethor as 'Lord of Gondor', surely the assumption that the ruling stewards were now truly the rightful lords could easily have meant they could seek to continue their rule, even after the knowledge that Aragorn, now revealed, was in direct ascendency to the throne.
Why did the ruling Stewards not then pass a law stating that they did not recognise the line of Isildur and claim the Kingship themselves?
Discuss.
If Faramir referred to Boromir as a 'Prince of Gondor' and Denethor as 'Lord of Gondor', surely the assumption that the ruling stewards were now truly the rightful lords could easily have meant they could seek to continue their rule, even after the knowledge that Aragorn, now revealed, was in direct ascendency to the throne.
Why did the ruling Stewards not then pass a law stating that they did not recognise the line of Isildur and claim the Kingship themselves?
Discuss.

