K
Kahmûl
Guest
When Gondor came to the aid of Arnor and the witch-king came out to face Eärnur why after his first charge at him did he run into the shadows if no man could kill him?

from the appendices in LOTR:Kahmûl said:When Gondor came to the aid of Arnor and the witch-king came out to face Eärnur why after his first charge at him did he run into the shadows if no man could kill him?
.... Then so utterly was Angmar defeated that not a man nor an orc of that realm remained west of the Mountains.
But it is said that when all was lost suddenly the Witch-king himself appeared, black-robed and black-masked upon a black horse. Fear fell upon all who beheld him; but he singled out the Captain of Gondor for the fullness of his hatred, and with a terrible cry he rode straight upon him. Earnur would have withstood him, but his horse could not endure that onset, and it swerved and bore him far away before he could master it
Then the Witch-king laughed, and none that heard it ever forgot the horror of that cry. But Glorfindel rode up then on his white horse, and in the midst of his laughter the Witch-king turned to flight and passed into the shadows. For night came down on the battlefield, and he was lost, and none saw whither he went.
Earnur now rode back, bur Glorfindel, looking into the gathering dark, said: "Do not pursue him! He will not return to this land. Far off yet is his doom, and not by the hand of man will he fall." These words many remembered; but Earnur was angry, desiring only to be avenged for his disgrace.
Even the Witch-king doesn't say "no man can kill me", but no man may "hinder" him. When Eowyn reveals herself as a woman, he is thrown into doubt and confusion. Picture him in his head saying to himself: "Whoa! Have I been misconstruing Glorfindel's prophecy all these years?" The Witch-king knows he is not immortal, remember he started out as a regular man before Sauron gave him one of the Nine rings. The power of the rings has meant that he does not grow old and die, it does not make him invulnerable."Hinder me? Thou fool. No living man may hinder me!"
..... "But no living man am I! You look upon a woman. Eowyn I am, Eomund's daughter. ......"
The winged creature screamed at her, but the Ringwraith made no answer, and was silent, as if in sudden doubt.
I will have to look up the letter you cite, but yes I agree. The Witch-king could be killed by anyone, if they could get past the "shield" of fear and terror he instilled in all who came in contact with him. Glorfindel's prophecy would tend to make it that much harder for anyone to conquer that fear in a confrontation.Inderjit S said:Heck, if one of the Hobbits had stabbed the W-K on Weathertop they would have killed him. (Letter #211.)
I agree. Maybe a moderator can move it.Shouldn't this be in the LoTR forum?
Leaving the inn at night and running off into the dark is an impossible solution of the difficulties of presentation here (which I can see). It is the last thing that Aragorn would have done. It is based on a misconception of the Black Riders throughout, which I beg Z to reconsider. Their peril is almost entirely due to the unreasoning fear which they inspire (like ghosts). They have no great physical power against the fearless; but what they have, and the fear that they inspire, is enormously increased in darkness. The Witch-king, their leader, is more powerful in all ways than the others; but he must not yet be raised to the stature of Vol. III. There, put in command by Sauron, he is given an added demonic force. But even in the Battle of the Pelennor, the darkness had only just broken.
Aragorn did not 'sing the song of Gil-galad'. Naturally: it was quite inappropriate, since it told of the defeat of the Elven-king by the Enemy. The Black Riders do not scream, but keep a more terrifying silence. Aragorn does not blanch. The riders draw slowly in on foot in darkness, and do not 'spur'. There is no fight. Sam does not 'sink his blade into the Ringwraith's thigh', nor does his thrust save Frodo's life. (If he had, the result would have been much the same as in III 117-20:the Wraith would have fallen down and the sword would have been destroyed.)
Why didn't another Nazgûl take over Minas Morgul and which of them took over the tower of Cirith Ungol?Inderjit S said:When he was killed they seemed to lose hope for a while, though Gothmog took over and the seemingly quasi-independent Haradrim (no. some 20,000 or so)
Then Tolkien wouldn't have had him around for Eowyn's big moment at Pelennor.Bucky said:If all it took was the physical blow, then he would've drowned in the flood at the Ford Of Bruienen too.....
Here is the paragraph:Greenwood said:As for the blade of Westernesse, I think Tolkien was just tying everything together. The main thing of that paragraph is how happy the forger of the sword would be to know it was used to deal a blow to the Witch-king of Angmar.
What is Tolkien tying together? He could have contrived to put a special sword into Éowyn’s hand had he wished. But if you could establish that one datum of his paragraph was the main thing, which you haven’t, it wouldn’t make the rest of the paragraph any less true.So passed the sword of the Barrow-downs, work of Westernesse. But glad would he have been to know its fate who wrought it slowly long ago in the North-kingdom when the Dúnedain were young, and chief among their foes was the dread realm of Angmar and its sorcerer king. No other blade, not though mightier hands had wielded it, would have dealt that foe a wound so bitter, cleaving the undead flesh, breaking the spell that knit his unseen sinews to his will.
Why not? The question is double-edged. Obviously the Nazgûl was not rendered altogether powerless but was weakened enough to be killed.There is also the fact that if some "spell" that made the Witch-king so special was broken by Merry's dagger thrust, why then was Eowyn's sword so spectacularly destroyed when she struck her blow? Why also was her near fatal injury through the sword arm as Aragorn says in the Houses of Healing?
That the Witch-king was now more vulnerable would not of necessity reduce all its powers to the point where it could be attacked without harm to the attacker. Obviously its powers were not so reduced. But they were reduced to the point that a lesser blade could deal it a death stroke.If Merry's thrust made the Witch-king mortal and vulnerable, why does he still seem to have all these powers when Eowyn strikes him?
How important do many make it? Tolkien claims only Merry’s blade could have so badly wounded the Nazgûl. That’s plain enough and clear enough. Then immediately after Éowyn’s unmagical blade actually kills the Nazgûl. How can that be if not because Merry’s blow caused a weakening of the Nazgûl which allowed Éowyn’s unmagical blade to strike a killing blow?I think there is a tendency to read way too much into that single sentence of Merry's stab breaking a "spell". Making it as important as many seem to do, just doesn't fit in with the rest of what is written.
Tolkien gives the blade that importance.No other blade, not though mightier hands had wielded it, would have dealt that foe a wound so bitter, cleaving the undead flesh, breaking the spell that knit his unseen sinews to his will.